2014 Physics WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Physics 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. A ball falling though a viscous liquid is acted upon by
    1. upthrust only.
    2. upthrust and the ball’s weight.
    3. the ball’s weight and viscous force.
    4. upthrust, the ball’s weight and viscous force.
  2. An object of mass m moves with a uniform speed v round a circular path of radius r. If its angular speed is ω, the magnitude of the centripetal force acting on it is
    1. 2r.
    2. mv2/r.
    3. mωr.
    4. mv2/r2.
  3. When an elastic material is stretched stored by a force, the energy stored in it is
    1. kinetic.
    2. potential.
    3. thermal.
    4. electrical.
  4. If no net force acts on an object, the object maintains a state of rest or constant speed in a straight line. The above is a statement of Newton’s
    1. first law of motion.
    2. second law of motion.
    3. third law of motion.
    4. law of universal gravitation.
  5. Which of the velocity-time graphs below correctly describes the motion of a body pulled by a force that is equal to the frictional force acting on it?
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  6. When the linear momentum of a body is constant, the net force acting on it
    1. is zero.
    2. increases.
    3. decreases
    4. remains constant.
  7. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities is made up of vectors?
    1. Speed and displacement.
    2. Mass and force.
    3. Displacement and acceleration.
    4. Momentum and length.
  8. The knowledge of surface tension is applied in the following areas except in
    1. manufacturing of rain coats.
    2. production of palm oil.
    3. floating of a needle on water.
    4. washing of plates with soapy water.
  9. A body is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 10 ms-1 from a point 2 m above the ground. Calculate the total time taken for the body to reach the ground. [g = 10 ms-2].
    1. 1.00s.
    2. 2.00s.
    3. 2.18s.
    4. 3.00s.
  10. A car starts from rest and covers a distance of 40 min 10s. Calculate the magnitude of its acceleration.
    1. 0.25 ms-2
    2. 0.80 ms-2
    3. 3.20 ms-2
    4. 4.00 ms-2
  11. The diagram above illustrates a uniform metre rule which is balanced on a pivot by some masses. Calculate the value of M.
    1. 500.0 g.
    2. 400.0 g.
    3. 44.4 g.
    4. 25.0 g.
  12. The period of a simple pendulum X is 5 s. What is the period of a simple pendulum Y which makes 50 vibrations in the same time it takes X to make 20 vibrations?
    1. 12.5 s.
    2. 2.5 s.
    3. 2.0 s.
    4. 1.2 s.
  13. Alcohol of mass 21 g and density 0.7 g cm-3 is mixed with 10 g of water. Determine the density of the mixture. [Density of water=1.0 g cm-3].
    1. 0.775 g cm-3
    2. 0.780 g cm-3
    3. 0.875 g cm-3
    4. 0.880 g cm-3
  14. A device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is
    1. a dynamo.
    2. an electric motor.
    3. an induction.
    4. a transformer.
  15. The SI unit of power is
    1. N.
    2. Pa.
    3. W.
    4. J.
  16. A screw-jack has the distance between its successive threads as P and the length of its tommy bar as r. Its velocity ratio is given by the expression.
    1. 2πr2/P.
    2. 2πr/P.
    3. 2π/rP.
    4. P/2πr.
  17. Heat transfer by conduction is similar to wave motion because
    1. there is increase in temperature.
    2. transfer of materials is involved.
    3. charged particles vibrate at right angles.
    4. no transfer of materials is involved.
  18. The temperature at which the water vapour in the air saturates the air and begins to condense is known as
    1. dew point.
    2. critical point.
    3. boiling point.
    4. triple point.
  19. The change of state from solid to liquid occurs
    1. at constant temperature.
    2. when temperature is lower than the boiling point.
    3. when temperature is just near freezing point.
    4. when temperature is equal to the boiling point.
  20. Which of the following types of thermometers can be used to measure a range of temperatures from —50° C to 50° C? I. Clinical II. Mercury-in-glass III. Alcohol-in-glass
    1. I only.
    2. II only.
    3. III only.
    4. I and II only.
  21. A body of mass M kg rests on a plane inclined at an angle θ to the horizontal. The component of the weight of the body parallel to the plane is
    1. Mg sin θ.
    2. Mg cos θ.
    3. Mg tan θ.
    4. Mg sec θ.
  22. A quantity of water at 20° C is mixed with another quantity of water at 70° C. The final steady temperature of the mixture is 40° C. Determine the ratio of the mass of the cold water to that of the hot water.
    1. 7:2
    2. 3:2
    3. 2:5
    4. 1:2
  23. The mass of an empty density bottle is 30 g. When filled with a liquid, the mass of the bottle and the liquid is 40 g. On heating the filled bottle through 40° C, the mass reduces to 38 g. Calculate the apparent cubic expansivity of the liquid.
    1. 6.25 x 10K-1
    2. 6.25 x 10-3K-1
    3. 2.50 x 10-3K-1
    4. 2.50 x 10-4K-1
  24. A car travelling at 30 m-1 overcomes a frictional resistance of 100 N while moving. Calculate the power developed by the engine. [1 hp=0.75 kW]
    1. 0.23 hp
    2. 0.40 hp
    3. 4.00 hp
    4. 4.40 hp
  25. The quality of a note depends on its
    1. frequency.
    2. pitch.
    3. overtones.
    4. amplitude.
  26. A transverse wave can be distinguished from a longitudinal wave by
    1. diffraction.
    2. reflection.
    3. refraction.
    4. polarization.
  27. The superposition of waves to produce maximum or zero effect at a point is known as
    1. reflection
    2. refraction.
    3. interference.
    4. diffraction.
  28. Refraction of light differs from reflection in that in refraction I. at least two media are involved. II. there is a change in the direction of the ray. III. the speed of the ray changes. Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
    1. I only
    2. I and II only
    3. II and III only
    4. I and III only
  29. Which of the following relations about the focal length fo of the objective and focal length fe of the eye piece of a compound microscope is correct?
    1. fo=fe
    2. fo<fe
    3. fo>fe
    4. fe=2fo
  30. The functional difference between a lens and a mirror is that a lens
    1. reflects a beam of light while a mirror refracts it.
    2. refracts a beam of light while a mirror reflects it.
    3. absorbs incident rays while a mirror transmits them.
    4. transmits incident rays while a mirror absorbs them.
  31. The diagram above illustrates an electromagnetic wave travelling with speed 3.0 x 108 ms-1. Calculate the wave length of the wave.
    1. 0.05 m
    2. 0.15 m
    3. .0.16 m
    4. 0.40 m
  32. An observer hears an echo 1.26 seconds after blowing a whistle near a cliff. Calculate the distance of the observer from the cliff. [Speed of sound in air = 330 ms-1]
    1. 104.4 m
    2. 207.9 m
    3. 415.8 m
    4. 523.8 m
  33. A fish inside a pond appears to be at a depth of 1.5 m when viewed vertically from above. The refractive index of the water in the pond is 1.3. Calculate the apparent displacement of the fish.
    1. 2.50 m
    2. 1.95 m
    3. 1.50 m
    4. 0.45 m
  34. At object is placed in front of two plane mirrors inclined at 60° to each other. Determine the number of images formed.
    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 5
    4. 7
  35. An ammeter can be adapted to measure potential difference by using a
    1. shunt.
    2. multiplier.
    3. rheostat
    4. resistance box
  36. The region around a magnet in which magnetic force can be experienced is known as
    1. declination.
    2. flux density.
    3. field.
    4. flux.
  37. In an a.c. circuit, when the supply voltage frequency is equal to the resonant frequency, the current
    1. leads the supply voltage by 90o.
    2. lags behind the supply voltage by 90o.
    3. leads the supply voltage by 45o.
    4. is in phase with the supply voltage
  38. The energy stored in a simple cell is
    1. electrical.
    2. nuclear.
    3. thermal.
    4. chemical.
  39. Which of the following conditions occur at resonance in a series RLC circuit? I. Impedance equals resistance II. Current is maximum III. Reactances are maximum 1V. Current and voltage are 90° out of phase
    1. I and II only.
    2. I and III only.
    3. I, II and III only.
    4. I, II, III and IV.
  40. An electric motor converts
    1. electrical energy to mechanical energy.
    2. mechanical energy to electrical energy.
    3. mechanical energy to sound energy.
    4. electrical energy to thermal energy.
  41. A 15μ1F capacitor is connected to a 240V, 50Hz a.c source. Calculate the reactance of the capacitor [π= 3.142].
    1. 16Ω
    2. 68Ω
    3. 106Ω
    4. 212Ω
  42. Two identical charges situated 20 cm apart in vacuum repel each other with a force of 1.0 N. Calculate the value of each charge. [14πɛo)-1=9 x 109 N m2C-2].
    1. 2.1μC.
    2. 3.6 μC.
    3. 4.0 μC.
    4. 4.4 μC.
  43. In the circuit diagram above, E is a battery of negligible internal resistance. If its emf is 9.0V, calculate the current in the circuit.
    1. 1.8 A
    2. 1.0 A
    3. 0.8 A
    4. 0.3 A
  44. A wire of length 100 cm has a resistance of 10Ω. If its cross-sectional area is 0.005 cm2, determine its resistivity
    1. 0.0005Ωcm
    2. 0.0015Ωcm
    3. 0.0016Ωcm
    4. 0.0700Ωcm
  45. A transformer has 400 turns of wire in the primary coil and 40 turns in the secondary coil. If the input voltage is 150 volts, calculate the magnitude of the output voltage.
    1. 150 V
    2. 55 V
    3. 36 V
    4. 15 V
  46. The circuit above illustrates a standard resistor R, voltage source E and a lamp L connected in series. If the temperature of R is increased, the brightness of the lamp will
    1. increase sharply.
    2. decrease slightly.
    3. remain the same.
    4. increase gradually.
  47. The energy required to separate the nucleus in an atom completely is known as
    1. mass defect of the atom.
    2. electron binding energy.
    3. excitation energy.
    4. nuclear binding energy.
  48. Which of the following statements is the major advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission?
    1. Nuclear fusion releases more energy.
    2. More neutrons are released in fusion than in fission.
    3. Fusion does not release as much dangerous radiation as fission.
    4. Fusion reactions occur more readily than fission.
  49. An aluminium foil is placed across a beam of radiation from a radioactive source. Which of the following types of radiation will be stopped by it?
    1. Alpha and beta particles.
    2. Alpha and gamma particles.
    3. Beta and gamma particles.
    4. Gamma particles only.
  50. An element of nucleon number P and atomic number Q emits an alpha particle from its nucleus. The resultant numbers of the new element formed are respectively.
    1. P -4 and Q +2.
    2. P -4 and Q -2.
    3. P +2 and Q +2.
    4. P +2 and Q -2.

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Part 1

  1. A particle is projected horizontally at 10 ms-1 from the top of a tower 20 m high. Calculate the horizontal distance travelled by the particle when it hits the level ground. [g=10ms-2]
  2. A tennis ball projected at an angle θ attains a range R= 78 m. If the velocity imparted to the ball by the racket is 30 ms-1, calculate θ. [g= 10 ms-2]
  3. An electron moves with a speed of 2.00 x 107 ms-1 in an orbit in a uniform magnetic field of 1.20 x 10-3 T. Calculate the radius of the orbit. [Mass of an electron = 9.11 X 10-31 kg; charge on an electron = 1.61x10-19 C]
  4. A metallic bar 50 cm long has a uniform cross-sectional area of 4.0 cm2. If a tensile force of 35 KN produces an extension of 0.25 mm, calculate the value 0° Young’s modulus.
    1. Explain how a gas can be made to conduct electricity.
    2. Name the electric charge carriers in gases.
  5. The diagram above represents the graph of electron energy against the frequency of the radiation incident on a metal surface. Interpret the:
    1. slope of the graph;
    2. intercept, OC;
    3. intercept, OK.
    1. State two conditions under which photo-electrons can emitted from the surface of a metal.
    2. List two particle characteristics of electromagnetic waves.

Part 2

    1. Give two examples each of:
      1. rotational motion;
      2. linear motion.
    2. Describe a laboratory experiment to determine the density of an irregularly shaped solid.
    3. State Newton's second law of motion.
    4. Explain the term inertia.
    5. The diagram above illustrates a body of mass 5.0 kg being pulled by a horizontal force F. If the body accelerates at 2.0 ms-2 and experiences a frictional force of 5 N, calculate the:
      1. net force of it;
      2. magnitude of F;
      3. coefficient of kinetic friction. [g= 10 ms-2]
    1. Define heat capacity and state its unit.
    2. List two effects of heat on a substance.
    3. Explain how a tightly fitted glass stopper could be removed from a reagent bottle.
    4. A quantity of pepper soup of mass 800 g poured into a plastic container with a tight-fitting lid has a temperature of 30°C. The container is then placed in a microwave oven, rated 1200 W and operated for 3 minutes.
      1. Calculate the final temperature attained by the soup. (Assuming no heat losses).
      2. Explain why containers with tight-fitting lids are not suitable for use in microwave cooking.
      3. When the soup is brought out and allowed to cool, a dent is observed on the container. Explain. [Take specific heat capacity of the soup = 4000 Jkg-1K-1].
    1. State the three characteristics of sound and the factor on which each of them depends.
    2. Explain resonance as applied to sound.
    3. What role does echo play in the construction of a concert hall?
    4. The surface of an ear drum (assumed circular) has a radius 2.1 mm. It resonates with an amplitude of 0.8 x 10-7 m as a result of impulses received from an external body vibrating at 2400 Hz. If the resulting pressure change on the ear drum is 3.6 x 10-5 Nm-2, calculate the:
      1. period of oscillation.
      2. velocity.
      3. acceleration.
      4. force. [π = 3.14].
    1. Define electromotive force.
    2. State:
      1. the principle of operation of a potentiometer,
      2. two advantages that a potentiometer has over a voltmeter in measuring potential difference.
      1. Sketch and label a diagram of a gold-leaf electroscope.
      2. Give one use of a gold-leaf electroscope.
      1. Explain the action of a magnetic relay.
      2. List two factors which determine the magnitude of an induced emf in a coil.
      3. A current of 5 A passes through a straight wire in a uniform magnetic field of flux density 2.0 x 10-3 T. Calculate the force per unit length exerted on the wire when it is inclined at 30° to the field.
    1. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and identify each component of the equation.
    2. For a photocell, state one factor each that is responsible for the:
      1. emission
      2. rate of emission
      3. energy of photoelectrons.
      1. Two nuclear equations are given below:
      2. Give a reason why it is important to dispose of radioactive waste safely.
      1. A certain atom emits ultra violet photon of wavelength 2.4 x10-7 m. Calculate the energy of the photon:
      2. _______________ -6.0 x 10-19 J _______________ -8.2 x 10-19 J _______________ -8.8 x 10-19 J _______________ -16.7 x 10-19 J
      3. The figure above illustrates the energy levels of the atom. Copy the figure in your answer booklet and indicate on it, the energy level transitions which cause the emission of the photon in 13(d)(i) above. [h=6.6 x 10-34 Js; c= 3.0 x 108 ms-1].

Physics 3 - Practical Questions

Alternative A

    1. You are provided with a grooved inclined plane, a solid sphere, stopwatch and other necessary materials.
      1. Place the pile of paper towels at the tail end of the inclined plane to stop the sphere from rolling off the table
      2. Release the sphere from a point at distance D= 140 cm from the tail end of the inclined plane.
      3. Determine the average time t taken by the sphere to cover this distance.
      4. Evaluate W= D/t
      5. Calculate V = 2W.
      6. Repeat the procedure for four other values of D= 120 cm, 100 cm, 80 cm and 60 cm respectively.
      7. Tabulate your readings.
      8. Plot a graph with V on the vertical axis and t on the horizontal axis.
      9. Determine the slope, s, of the graph.
      10. What is the significance of s?
      11. State two precautions taken to obtain accurate results.
      1. Write the equation for the velocity ratio of an inclined plane, giving the meanings of the symbols used.
      2. An object of mass 5 kg is placed on a plane inclined at an angle of 300 to the horizontal. Calculate the force on the object perpendicular to the plane when the object is at rest [g= 10 ms-2]
    1. You are provided with an illuminated object, converging lens, screen, metre rule and other necessary materials.
      1. Measure and record the size ao of the illuminated object.
      2. Place the object O and the screen S on opposite sides of the converging lens L.
      3. Set the distance between the object and the lens U =30 cm.
      4. Adjust the screen until a sharp image of the illuminated objects is obtained on the screen.
      5. Measure and record the size a of the image
      6. Evaluate m=a/ao and m-1 .
      7. Repeat the procedure for four other values of U= 35 cm, 40 cm and 50 cm respectively.
      8. Tabulate your readings.
      9. Plot a graph with m-1 on the vertical axis and u on the horizontal axis.
      10. Determine the slope, s, of the graph and the intercept, c, on the vertical axis.
      11. Determine the value of U for which m-1=0
      12. State two precautions taken to obtain accurate results
      1. Using your graph, the value of m for which U = 37 cm.
      2. Sketch a diagram to illustrate how to illustrate how a converging lens may be used to produce a real diminished image of an object.
    1. You are provided with a potentiometer AB, a 10 standard resistor R, battery of emf 4.5 V, a jockey and other necessary materials.
      1. Connect a circuit a shown in the diagram above.
      2. Close key K. Without J making contact with AB, read and record the ammeter reading I. open the key
      3. Use the jockey to make contact with AB at the 20 cm mark such that AJ=x=20 cm. Close the key, read and record the ammeter I.
      4. Evaluate x-1
      5. Repeat the procedure for values of x=35 cm, 45 cm, 60 cm and 80 cm respectively.
      6. Tabulate your readings.
      7. Plot a graph with x-1 on the vertical axis and I on the horizontal axis, starting both axes from the origin (0,0).
      8. Determine the slope, s of the graph.
      9. From your graph, determine the value IoIi for which x -1=0.
      10. Evaluate Io/I
      11. State two precautions taken to obtain accurate results.
      1. Define emf of a battery.
      2. A cell X of emf 1.018 V is balanced by a length of 50.0 cm on a potentiometer wire. Another cell Y is balanced by a length of 75.0 cm on the same wire. Calculate the emf of Y.