2011 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

1. The branch of biology that deals with the principles of classification of organisms is known as
   1. biological index
   2. nomenclature.
   3. taxonomy.
   4. ecology.
2. Which of the following structures is a tissue?
   1. Vessel element
   2. Blood
   3. Sieve tube element
   4. Erythrocyte
3. Which of the following cells are not regarded as specialized?
   1. Sperm cells
   2. Root tip cells
   3. Muscle cells
   4. Somatic cells
4. Which of the following pairs of cells carry out the same function?
   1. Check cells and red blood cell
   2. Spermatozcan and ovum
   3. Palisade cell and epidermal cell
   4. Root tip cell and guard cell
5. If amoeba is placed in a salt solution, the contractile vacuoles would
   1. be bursting more frequently.
   2. be more numerous.
   3. be formed less frequently.
   4. grow bigger before they burst.
6. In which of the following habitats is Paramecium not found?
   1. Pond
   2. Aquarium
   3. Lake
   4. Puddle
7. The following processes are involved in water movement in the endodermis except
   1. osmosis.
   2. vacuolar pathway
   3. diffusion
   4. active transport
8. Cells that utilise a lot of energy are characterized by the presence of a large number of
   1. vacuoles.
   2. mitochondria
   3. endoplasmic reticulum.
   4. ribosomes.

The diagram below represents the phenomenon of growth in a meristematic cell of a plant.

Use it to answer questions 9 and 10

the diagram

9. The part labelled II in the diagram is
   1. centriole.
   2. chloroplast.
   3. chromatid.
   4. tonoplast.
10. The part labelled I in the diagram is
    1. nucleolus
    2. centromere
    3. centriole
    4. spindle
11. Secondary growth is brought about by the activities of the
    1. phellogen and phelloderm.
    2. phellogen and procambium.
    3. vascular cambium and phelloderm.
    4. vascular cambium and phellogen.
12. A monocot root is different from a dicot root by having
    1. endodermis.
    2. cambium.
    3. wide pith.
    4. root hair.
13. Which of the following statements best describes haemoglobin? it is
    1. yellowish in colour.
    2. a red blood cell.
    3. an oxygen carrying pigment.
    4. needed for blood clotting.
14. Inhaled air is made warm and moist in the
    1. epiglottis.
    2. nasal cavity.
    3. trachea.
    4. mouth.
15. Which of the following structures is not involved in respiration?
    1. Lung books
    2. Mouth
    3. Stomach
    4. Trachea
16. Filtrate in the Bowman's capsule contains vitamins because
    1. only a little amount is required by the body
    2. they can be reabsorbed into the blood.
    3. they have low molecular weight
    4. most of them are fat soluble.
17. More sweat is produced during muscular exercise because
    1. the contracting muscles produce water.
    2. fermentation occurs in muscles.
    3. the temperature of the body rises.
    4. the muscle fatigues.
18. Which of the following neurons may not have myelin sheath?
    1. Effects cells
    2. Intermediate neurons
    3. Motor neurons
    4. Sensory neurons
19. Which of the following is an effector organ?
    1. Tongue
    2. Skin
    3. Nose bridge
    4. Ear glands
20. During sexual reproduction in Paramecium, how many times does the zygote divide to produce eight nuclei?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
21. The testes in male mammals descend into the scrotal sac because
    1. there is congestion in the lower abdomen.
    2. they run the risk of being destroyed.
    3. they need special support.
    4. they require a relatively low temperature.
22. Some animals return to water bodies to reproduce because
    1. natural enemies destroy their eggs on land.
    2. water nourishes their embryos and their young ones.
    3. they are close to their ancestors and imitate them.
    4. the temperature on land is not suitable for the development of their embryos.
23. Which of the following methods is appropriate for the cultivation of cassava?
    1. Budding
    2. Fragmentation
    3. Root cutting
    4. Stem cutting
24. What will be the chromosome number of the hybrid of two varieties of a plant with 36 chromosomes in the endosperm cell?
    1. 12
    2. 24
    3. 36
    4. 48
25. Kreb's cycle occurs in the
    1. mitochondria.
    2. cytoplasm.
    3. nucleus.
    4. ribosomes.
26. The process whereby electrons are emitted from chlorophyll and returned to it unchanged is known as
    1. non-cyclic phosphorylation.
    2. photochemical reaction.
    3. photophcrylation.
    4. cyclic photophcrylation
27. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is not true?
    1. Plants can photosynthesize without an increase
    2. Carbon dioxide is absorbed by the leaves in bright light
    3. Oxygen is produced during photosynthesis from the breakdown of water
    4. Photosynthesis occurs in green plants
28. The equation below represents the process of glycolysis

    equation

    X in the equation represents

    1. glucose diphosphate
    2. glucose phosphate
    3. glucose triphosphate
    4. fructose phosphate
29. The removal of all the phloem tissues of the stem of a plant close to the root system for a long period of time is likely to
    1. provide more energy to the roots.
    2. accumulate more starch in the roots
    3. cause the underground roots to develop buds
    4. cause the plant to wither and die.
30. The conversion of glucose to starch in the leaf during the day Boncpelly
    1. enables photosynthesis.
    2. prevents osmotic problems.
    3. enables the leaf to store the starch.
    4. enables glucose to be used up.
31. Which of the following groups of substances are not six-carbon compounds?
    1. Glucose and lactose
    2. Lactose and Cellulose
    3. Glucose, Lactose and Pyruvate
    4. Pyruvate and cellulose
32. A purple colour was obtained when sodium hydroxide solution and a drop of copper sulphate solution were added to a food substance. The food substance is likely to be a
    1. carbohydrate
    2. fat.
    3. protein.
    4. sugar.
33. Which of the following enzymes is active in the duodenum?
    1. Pepsin
    2. Renin
    3. Trypsin
    4. Amylase
34. The following organisms are producers except
    1. Hibiscus.
    2. Mushroom.
    3. Cactus.
    4. spirogyra.
35. Which of the following structures produces the greatest variety of digestive enzymes?
    1. Salivary glands
    2. Pancreas
    3. Stomach
    4. Colon
36. The following are abiotic components of an ecosystem except
    1. temperature.
    2. oxygen.
    3. bacteria.
    4. soil.

Use the information on capture-recapture method to calculate the total number of organisms in a habitat.

First capture = 200

Second capture = 120

Number of organisms with mark in second capture = 40

37. The total number of organisms therefore is
    1. 200
    2. 360
    3. 600
    4. 800
38. Ecological investigation in a habitat includes the following procedures except
    1. choosing a habitat.
    2. identification of specimens.
    3. determining the genetic make-up of specimens.
    4. measuring abiotic and biotic factors.
39. Which of the following substances when lost from the body of a mammal will not be returned to the ecosystem?
    1. Sweat
    2. Urea
    3. Heat energy
    4. Carbon dioxide
40. The rate of decomposition of organisms is faster in the tropical rain forest than in other biomes because
    1. of the relatively constant daylight.
    2. there are more plants per square feet.
    3. of abundance of water.
    4. of constant cool temperature.
41. A xerophyte conserves water by possession of the following features except
    1. thick cuticle.
    2. sunken stomata.
    3. broad leaves.
    4. fleshy stem.
42. The falling off of leaves of deciduous trees is helpful to the plant because it
    1. reduces the rate of transpiration.
    2. enables the plant to conveniently eliminate its excretory products.
    3. enables the plant to bear more fruits.
    4. ensures that the limited mineral salts get to only growing region
43. A sample of wet garden soil of known weight was heated to constant weight. The loss of weight is due to loss of
    1. Water
    2. Organic matter
    3. water and organic matter.
    4. water and inorganic matter.
44. Assuming that a period of stable population size is followed by a period when natality increases by ten (10) per cent and immigration increases by twenty (20) per cent of population size. The population size will
    1. be at equilibrium.
    2. increase by forty (40) per cent.
    3. begin to increase
    4. begin to decrease
45. Which of the following methods does not make water fit for drinking?
    1. Addition of chlorine
    2. Boiling
    3. Distillation
    4. Addition of alum.
46. Vaccination results in
    1. aiding red blood cells to carry more oxygen.
    2. production of antibodies which destroy toxins of gems
    3. arresting excessive bleeding.
    4. production of white blood cells which engulf and digest bacteria.
47. Leguminous crops are incorporated into crop rotation in order to
    1. improve aeration of the soil.
    2. promote nitrogen fixation.
    3. increase the rate of soil formation.
    4. improve upon the water holding capacity of the soil.
48. Which of the following practices improves crop yield in a clayey soil? Addition of
    1. more water and humus.
    2. lime and humus.
    3. fertilizers.
    4. weedicides and fertilizers.
49. Which of the following activities promotes forest conservation?
    1. Lumbering
    2. Use of firewood for cooking
    3. Afforestation
    4. Production of paper.
50. Which of the following statements is not true about continuous variation? It
    1. is usually controlled by several genes.
    2. can be influenced by environmental factors.
    3. follows a normal distribution curve.
    4. Option d

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

1. Question 1
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
2. Question 2
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
3. Question 3
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
4. Question 4
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

6. Question 6
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

1. Question 1
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
2. Question 2
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

4. Question 4
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v