2011 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June: Difference between revisions

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         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>The equation below represents the process of glycolysis
     <li>The equation below represents the process of glycolysis <p> equation </p> <p> '''X''' in the equation represents </P>
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>glucose diphosphate</li>
             <li>glucose diphosphate</li>
Line 245: Line 245:
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 31
     <li>Which of the following groups of substances are '''not''' six-carbon compounds?
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>Glucose and lactose</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>Lactose and Cellulose</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>Glucose, Lactose and Pyruvate</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>Pyruvate and cellulose</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 32
     <li>A purple colour was obtained when sodium hydroxide solution and a drop of copper sulphate solution were added to a food substance. The food substance is likely to be a
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>carbohydrate</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>fat.</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>protein.</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>sugar.</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 33
     <li>Which of the following enzymes is active in the duodenum?
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>Pepsin</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>Renin</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>Trypsin</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>Amylase</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 34
     <li>The following organisms are producers except
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>Hibiscus.</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>Mushroom.</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>Cactus.</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>spirogyra.</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 35
     <li>Which of the following structures produces the greatest variety of digestive enzymes?
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>Salivary glands</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>Pancreas</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>Stomach</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>Colon</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 36
     <li>The following are abiotic components of an ecosystem '''except'''
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>temperature.</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>oxygen.</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>bacteria.</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>soil.</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 37
<p> Use the information on capture-recapture method to calculate the total number of organisms in a habitat.</p>
<p> First capture  =  200</p>
<p> Second capture  = 120</p>
<p> Number of organisms with mark in second capture = 40</p>
     <li>The total number of organisms therefore is
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>200</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>360</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>600</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>800</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 38
     <li>Ecological investigation in a habitat includes the following procedures '''except'''
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>choosing a habitat.</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>identification of specimens.</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>determining the genetic make-up of specimens.</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>measuring abiotic and biotic factors.</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 39
     <li>Which of the following substances when lost from the body of a mammal will not be returned to the ecosystem?
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>Sweat</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>Urea</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>Heat energy</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>Carbon dioxide</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 40
     <li>The rate of decomposition of organisms is faster in the tropical rain forest than in other biomes because
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>of the relatively constant daylight.</li>
             <li>Option b</li>
             <li>there are more plants per square feet.</li>
             <li>Option c</li>
             <li>of abundance of water.</li>
             <li>Option d</li>
             <li>of constant cool temperature.</li>
         </ol>
         </ol>
     </li>
     </li>
     <li>Question 41
     <li>A xerophyte conserves water by possession of the following features '''except'''
         <ol type="a">
         <ol type="a">
             <li>Option a</li>
             <li>Option a</li>

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. The branch of biology that deals with the principles of classification of organisms is known as
    1. biological index
    2. nomenclature.
    3. taxonomy.
    4. ecology.
  2. Which of the following structures is a tissue?
    1. Vessel element
    2. Blood
    3. Sieve tube element
    4. Erythrocyte
  3. Which of the following cells are not regarded as specialized?
    1. Sperm cells
    2. Root tip cells
    3. Muscle cells
    4. Somatic cells
  4. Which of the following pairs of cells carry out the same function?
    1. Check cells and red blood cell
    2. Spermatozcan and ovum
    3. Palisade cell and epidermal cell
    4. Root tip cell and guard cell
  5. If amoeba is placed in a salt solution, the contractile vacuoles would
    1. be bursting more frequently.
    2. be more numerous.
    3. be formed less frequently.
    4. grow bigger before they burst.
  6. In which of the following habitats is Paramecium not found?
    1. Pond
    2. Aquarium
    3. Lake
    4. Puddle
  7. The following processes are involved in water movement in the endodermis except
    1. osmosis.
    2. vacuolar pathway
    3. diffusion
    4. active transport
  8. Cells that utilise a lot of energy are characterized by the presence of a large number of
    1. vacuoles.
    2. mitochondria
    3. endoplasmic reticulum.
    4. ribosomes.
  9. The diagram below represents the phenomenon of growth in a meristematic cell of a plant.

    Use it to answer questions 9 and 10

    the diagram

  10. The part labelled II in the diagram is
    1. centriole.
    2. chloroplast.
    3. chromatid.
    4. tonoplast.
  11. The part labelled I in the diagram is
    1. nucleolus
    2. centromere
    3. centriole
    4. spindle
  12. Secondary growth is brought about by the activities of the
    1. phellogen and phelloderm.
    2. phellogen and procambium.
    3. vascular cambium and phelloderm.
    4. vascular cambium and phellogen.
  13. A monocot root is different from a dicot root by having
    1. endodermis.
    2. cambium.
    3. wide pith.
    4. root hair.
  14. Which of the following statements best describes haemoglobin? it is
    1. yellowish in colour.
    2. a red blood cell.
    3. an oxygen carrying pigment.
    4. needed for blood clotting.
  15. Inhaled air is made warm and moist in the
    1. epiglottis.
    2. nasal cavity.
    3. trachea.
    4. mouth.
  16. Which of the following structures is not involved in respiration?
    1. Lung books
    2. Mouth
    3. Stomach
    4. Trachea
  17. Filtrate in the Bowman's capsule contains vitamins because
    1. only a little amount is required by the body
    2. they can be reabsorbed into the blood.
    3. they have low molecular weight
    4. most of them are fat soluble.
  18. More sweat is produced during muscular exercise because
    1. the contracting muscles produce water.
    2. fermentation occurs in muscles.
    3. the temperature of the body rises.
    4. the muscle fatigues.
  19. Which of the following neurons may not have myelin sheath?
    1. Effects cells
    2. Intermediate neurons
    3. Motor neurons
    4. Sensory neurons
  20. Which of the following is an effector organ?
    1. Tongue
    2. Skin
    3. Nose bridge
    4. Ear glands
  21. During sexual reproduction in Paramecium, how many times does the zygote divide to produce eight nuclei?
    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
  22. The testes in male mammals descend into the scrotal sac because
    1. there is congestion in the lower abdomen.
    2. they run the risk of being destroyed.
    3. they need special support.
    4. they require a relatively low temperature.
  23. Some animals return to water bodies to reproduce because
    1. natural enemies destroy their eggs on land.
    2. water nourishes their embryos and their young ones.
    3. they are close to their ancestors and imitate them.
    4. the temperature on land is not suitable for the development of their embryos.
  24. Which of the following methods is appropriate for the cultivation of cassava?
    1. Budding
    2. Fragmentation
    3. Root cutting
    4. Stem cutting
  25. What will be the chromosome number of the hybrid of two varieties of a plant with 36 chromosomes in the endosperm cell?
    1. 12
    2. 24
    3. 36
    4. 48
  26. Kreb's cycle occurs in the
    1. mitochondria.
    2. cytoplasm.
    3. nucleus.
    4. ribosomes.
  27. The process whereby electrons are emitted from chlorophyll and returned to it unchanged is known as
    1. non-cyclic phosphorylation.
    2. photochemical reaction.
    3. photophcrylation.
    4. cyclic photophcrylation
  28. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is not true?
    1. Plants can photosynthesize without an increase
    2. Carbon dioxide is absorbed by the leaves in bright light
    3. Oxygen is produced during photosynthesis from the breakdown of water
    4. Photosynthesis occurs in green plants
  29. The equation below represents the process of glycolysis

    equation

    X in the equation represents

    1. glucose diphosphate
    2. glucose phosphate
    3. glucose triphosphate
    4. fructose phosphate
  30. The removal of all the phloem tissues of the stem of a plant close to the root system for a long period of time is likely to
    1. provide more energy to the roots.
    2. accumulate more starch in the roots
    3. cause the underground roots to develop buds
    4. cause the plant to wither and die.
  31. The conversion of glucose to starch in the leaf during the day Boncpelly
    1. enables photosynthesis.
    2. prevents osmotic problems.
    3. enables the leaf to store the starch.
    4. enables glucose to be used up.
  32. Which of the following groups of substances are not six-carbon compounds?
    1. Glucose and lactose
    2. Lactose and Cellulose
    3. Glucose, Lactose and Pyruvate
    4. Pyruvate and cellulose
  33. A purple colour was obtained when sodium hydroxide solution and a drop of copper sulphate solution were added to a food substance. The food substance is likely to be a
    1. carbohydrate
    2. fat.
    3. protein.
    4. sugar.
  34. Which of the following enzymes is active in the duodenum?
    1. Pepsin
    2. Renin
    3. Trypsin
    4. Amylase
  35. The following organisms are producers except
    1. Hibiscus.
    2. Mushroom.
    3. Cactus.
    4. spirogyra.
  36. Which of the following structures produces the greatest variety of digestive enzymes?
    1. Salivary glands
    2. Pancreas
    3. Stomach
    4. Colon
  37. The following are abiotic components of an ecosystem except
    1. temperature.
    2. oxygen.
    3. bacteria.
    4. soil.
  38. Use the information on capture-recapture method to calculate the total number of organisms in a habitat.

    First capture = 200

    Second capture = 120

    Number of organisms with mark in second capture = 40

  39. The total number of organisms therefore is
    1. 200
    2. 360
    3. 600
    4. 800
  40. Ecological investigation in a habitat includes the following procedures except
    1. choosing a habitat.
    2. identification of specimens.
    3. determining the genetic make-up of specimens.
    4. measuring abiotic and biotic factors.
  41. Which of the following substances when lost from the body of a mammal will not be returned to the ecosystem?
    1. Sweat
    2. Urea
    3. Heat energy
    4. Carbon dioxide
  42. The rate of decomposition of organisms is faster in the tropical rain forest than in other biomes because
    1. of the relatively constant daylight.
    2. there are more plants per square feet.
    3. of abundance of water.
    4. of constant cool temperature.
  43. A xerophyte conserves water by possession of the following features except
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  44. Question 42
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  45. Question 43
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  46. Question 44
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  47. Question 45
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  48. Question 46
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  49. Question 47
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  50. Question 48
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  51. Question 49
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  52. Question 50
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 3
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  4. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

  1. Question 6
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

  1. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v