2018 Economics WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Economics 1 - Objective

  1. Economic problems arise in all societies because
    1. resources are mismanaged by leaders
    2. there is no proper planning
    3. resources are not in adequate supply
    4. the services of economists are not employed.
  2. Which of the following is not emphasized in a production possibility curve?
    1. scarcity of resources
    2. economic development
    3. inefficiency in the use of resources
    4. unemployment of labour.
  3. The organisation of productive factors is the responsibility of the
    1. management
    2. entrepreneur
    3. production manager
    4. labour union
  4. Producers operating in a free market economy are more efficient as a result of
    1. the existence of competition
    2. the very few number of participants
    3. the commitment of the shareholders
    4. government's regulation of their activities
  5. In a pie chart, the population of a city is represented by a sector 45°. If the country has a population of 10 million people, then the city’s population is
    1. 0.0045 million
    2. 4.5 million
    3. 1.25 million
    4. 16 million
  6. A downward sloping demand curve means that
    1. total revenue declines as price is lowered
    2. demand falls as output rises
    3. demand falls as output falls
    4. price must be lowered to sell more
  7. If the price of commodity X rises and consumers shift to commodity Y, then commodities X and Y are
    1. substitutes
    2. complements
    3. inferior goods
    4. bought together
  8. Goods whose demands vary directly with money income are called
    1. inferior goods
    2. complementary goods
    3. substitute goods
    4. normal goods
  9. An exceptional demand curve can result from
    1. increase in price of raw materials
    2. increase in the size of the population
    3. expectation of future price increase
    4. change in taste of the consumer.
  10. Palm oil and palm kernel are in
    1. joint supply
    2. competitive demand
    3. competitive supply
    4. complementary demand
  11. .Which of the following is true about supply of land? It
    1. is higher in the urban than rural areas
    2. varies with time
    3. rises with demand
    4. is fixed
  12. The backward bending supply curve of labour indicates
    1. an abnormal supply situation
    2. the law of supply
    3. that labour supply and wage rate are directly related
    4. that the elasticity of supply is uniform.
  13. A supply curve parallel to the X-axis indicates
    1. fairly elastic supply
    2. infinitely elastic supply
    3. fairly inelastic supply
    4. perfectly inelastic supply
  14. If the marginal utility of a commodity is equal to its price, then
    1. the consumer is in equilibrium
    2. more of the commodity can be consumed
    3. total utility is also equal to its price
    4. the market is not in equilibrium.
  15. A price floor is usually fixed
    1. at the equilibrium and causes shortage
    2. above the equilibrium and causes shortage
    3. below the equilibrium and causes surpluses
    4. above the equilibrium and causes surpluses.
  16. A market is in equilibrium when
    1. there is no government intervention
    2. the demand is the same as the supply
    3. buyers and sellers are free to sell more goods
    4. there is no free entry and exit.
  17. A firm’s average cost decreases in the long-run because of
    1. increasing returns to scale
    2. diminishing average returns
    3. decreasing marginal returns
    4. decreasing average fixed cost.
  18. “The larger a firm, the lower its cost of production”. This statement explains the
    1. law of diminishing returns
    2. concept of economics of scale
    3. law of comparative cost advantage
    4. theory of division of labour.
    19. Use the table below to answer question 19 and 20
    Quantity 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
    Total Cost 20 25 28 30 38 55 92 135
  19. The total fixed cost is
    1. $7.00
    2. $30.00
    3. $20.00
    4. $135.00
  20. At output level 5, the total variable cost is
    1. $5.00
    2. $20.00
    3. $55.00
    4. $35.00
  21. In the long-run. A firm must shut down if its average revenue is
    1. greater than average cost
    2. less than average variable cost
    3. equal to the minimum average cost
    4. equal to the average cost.
  22. Public limited liability companies are democratic in nature because
    1. government appointees are members of the board
    2. they are run by elected public officers
    3. electoral principles are adopted in the day-to-day management
    4. shareholders elect the board of directors.
  23. In the event of bankruptcy, owners of joint-stock companies lose
    1. their private properties
    2. both company and private assets
    3. only the capital invested
    4. only their dividends
  24. Wholesalers play an important role in the distribution of goods and services because they
    1. are located very close to consumers
    2. finance both producers and retailers
    3. pass information on from retailers to consumers
    4. sell in small units to consumers products
  25. If workers at the school canteen cannot sell during the holidays, this is an example of
    1. structural unemployment
    2. frictional unemployment
    3. Seasonal unemployment  
    4. residual unemployment.
  26. Positive checks as envisaged by Thomas Malthus can be prevented if
    1. death rate is reduced
    2. marriage is abolished
    3. more hospitals are built
    4. moral restraint is adopted
  27. Which of the following factors is not a reason for farmer's unstable incomes?
    1. dependence on too many crops
    2. poor storage facilities
    3. adverse weather condition
    4. recession in the world economy.
  28. Local firms can help in reducing unemployment in a country when
    1. land acquisitions becomes centralized
    2. imports of substitutes are reduced
    3. waste in the firm is eliminated
    4. subsidies to firms are decreased.
  29. An industry is described as a group of firms
    1. that provides jobs for many people
    2. which uses advance technology in production
    3. which produces similar products
    4. that provides jobs for few people
  30. The largest component of national income in developing countries consists of
    1. profits
    2. profit and rent
    3. rent
    4. wages and salaries
  31. A baker bought flour and other ingredients for $250.00 spent $52.00 on distribution, sold the bread for $320.00. The value added by baker is:
    1. $302.00
    2. $52.00
    3. $18.00
    4. $622.00
  32. In a country with large population of full-time housewives, national income  
    1. will be composed of goods produced by women
    2. figures will be grossly over-stated
    3. statistics will be difficult to calculate
    4. figures will be grossly under-stated
  33. Demand-pull inflation is likely to be caused by  
    1. an increase in the cost of factor inputs
    2. increase in the income tax rate
    3. increase in bank lending rates
    4. increasingly large budget deficit
  34. Holding money to take care of contingencies is
    1. speculative motive
    2. a transactions motive
    3. a precautionary motive
    4. an expansionary motive
  35. If a housewife has meat and wants tomatoes, she must find someone who has tomatoes to give and wants meat. This concept is described as:
    1. scale of preference
    2. opportunity cost
    3. complementary demand
    4. double coincidence of wants
  36. The stock exchange is an example of the
    1. labour market
    2. money market
    3. commodity market
    4. capital market
  37. What happened when the central bank increases the bank rate in an economy?
    1. borrowing is discouraged
    2. customers increase their borrowing
    3. bank scan increase their lending
    4. money supply increases
  38. Income is redistributed when the rich are progressively taxed and  
    1. more private schools are established  
    2. subsidy is provided on petroleum products
    3. more public goods are provided
    4. farmers are given guaranteed prices.
  39. In order to increase revenue, government should tax commodities for which demand is
    1. perfectly price inelastic
    2. price inelastic
    3. price elastic
    4. unitary elastic
  40. Which of the following activities will not lead to economic growth?  
    1. massive importation of capital goods
    2. intensive capital formation locally
    3. use of modern technology
    4. massive importation of consumer goods.
  41. The poorer the country, the larger the percentage of labour force engaged in
    1. agriculture
    2. mining
    3. trading
    4. manufacturing
  42. Which of the following measures can be adopted to stabilize the external value of the local currency?  
    1. reduce the volume of exports
    2. increase the demand for imports
    3. increase domestic money supply
    4. reduce the demand for imports.
  43. Which of the following is not a measure for reducing balance of payments deficits?  
    1. export drive
    2. reducing tariffs
    3. adding value to export goods
    4. increasing local production
  44. Nations engage in external trade because of differences in
    1. comparative cost
    2. absolute cost
    3. fixed cost
    4. variable cost
  45. One advantage of international trade is that
    1. prices of goods become stable
    2. countries become self-sufficient
    3. goods consumed are produced at a very high cost
    4. it makes possible the consumption of variety of goods
  46. Which of the following forms of economic integration is a member nation free to impose duty against non-members?  
    1. customs union
    2. free trade area  
    3. common market  
    4. economic community
  47. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) performs the following functions except
    1. granting long-term loans
    2. assisting with technical expertise
    3. reducing tariff among members
    4. developing human resource
  48. An electrical engineer who is teaching Physics in a secondary school is said to be
    1. underemployed  
    2. unemployed  
    3. fully employed
    4. technologically unemployed
  49. One benefit a country can derive from the extraction of crude oil is increase in
    1. population
    2. employment
    3. money
    4. demand for imports
  50. Which of the following cannot be classified as a natural resource?
    1. iron rod
    2. wildlife
    3. solar energy
    4. gold

Economics 2 - Essay

Section A

Answer one question only from this section.

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section B

Answer three questions only from this section.

  1. Question 3
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 5
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  4. Question 6
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  5. Question 7
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  6. Question 8
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
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