2014 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. The excretory product in protozoans is
    1. amino acid.
    2. uric acid.
    3. ammonia.
    4. urea..
  2. Which of the following is a living organism?
    1. Muscle
    2. Nucleus
    3. Yeast
    4. Mitochondrion
  3. Which of the following organisms is the most specialized?
    1. Paramecium
    2. Amoeba
    3. Spirogyra
    4. Rhizopus
  4. Active transport can be defined as the movement of
    1. substances from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
    2. substances from a region of low concentration to a region of high concentration across a living cell membrane.
    3. substances across a living cell membrane using energy from the cell.
    4. movement of molecules in a medium.
  5. Which of the following cell inclusions can destroy other cell organelles?
    1. Centriole
    2. Ribosome
    3. Lysosome
    4. Mitochondrion.
  6. In which of the following yam tissues will osmosis occur?
    1. Boiled and peeled
    2. Raw and peeled
    3. Boiled and peeled
    4. Roasted and peeled.
  7. The line XZ in the diagram below represents an actual distance of 10.0 cm and the length of the diagram is 5.0 cm. What is the magnification of the diagram?
    1. x 0.2
    2. x 0.5
    3. x 2.0
    4. x 50.0
  8. The following events occur during mitosis in a cell:I. Chromatids separate; II. Chromosomes become visible; III. Chromosomes align at the equator; IV. Cytoplasm divides (Cytokinesis). The correct sequence of the events is
    1. III, II, IV, I.
    2. II, III, I, IV.
    3. II, I, III, IV.
    4. II, IV, I, III.
  9. Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is correct?. It
    1. always involves one parent but the offspring is genetically different from the parent.
    2. may involve two parents but the offspring is always identical to one parent.
    3. always involves one parent and the offspring is genetically identical to the parent.
    4. involves two parents but the offspring is not genetically identical to any of the parents.
  10. The diagram below is an illustration of a mammalian bone. Use it to answer questions 10 and 11.
  11. The bone illustrated above is the
    1. femur.
    2. humerus.
    3. radius.
    4. ulna.
  12. The function of the part labelled L is to
    1. fit into the glenoid cavity of the scapula.
    2. fit into the acetabulum of the pelvic girdle.
    3. support the lower arm.
    4. prevent the arm from bending backwards.
  13. Which of the following processes is not a function of the mammalian skin?
    1. Regulation of body temperature
    2. Reception of external stimuli
    3. Excretion
    4. Gaseous exchange.
  14. The legs of an accident victim with a fractured vertebral column and injured spinal cord could not be raised because
    1. impulses from receptors in the legs cannot travel to the brain.
    2. impulses from the brain cannot travel to the legs.
    3. chemical substances will be released at synapses in the central nervous system.
    4. reflex actions cannot take place in the legs.
  15. Which of the following conditions in flowering plants enhance self-pollination?
    1. Cleistogamy
    2. Heterostyly
    3. Protandry
    4. Protogyny.
  16. The diagram below is an illustration of the left side of the human cerebrum.
  17. The part labelled X controls
    1. general memory.
    2. speech.
    3. sight.
    4. respiratory functions.
  18. Use the diagram below to answer question 16 only
  19. The diagram above is an illustration of
    1. normal sight.
    2. short sightedness.
    3. correction of long sightedness.
    4. correction of short sightedness.
  20. The inability to maintain proper balance of the body in humans may be due to a defect in the
    1. cochlea.
    2. Eustachian tube.
    3. semi-circular canals.
    4. oval window.
  21. The following substances pass into the blood of the foetus from the mother's blood via the placenta except
    1. carbon dioxide.
    2. glucose.
    3. viruses.
    4. antibodies.
  22. An inferior ovary of a flower is situated
    1. below the floral parts.
    2. above the floral parts.
    3. at the same level with all the floral parts.
    4. at the centre of the floral parts.
  23. Older parts of plant roots do not normally absorb water because
    1. they lack xylem.
    2. they have small surface area.
    3. the phloem is dead.
    4. they lack root hairs.
  24. The amount of starch in a germinating seed decreases because the starch is used up
    1. for respiration and building up of cells.
    2. to build cellulose cell wall.
    3. to develop meristematic tissues.
    4. for the production of enzymes.
  25. The purpose of treating poor soil with lime us to increase the quantity of
    1. nitrogen.
    2. phosphorus.
    3. calcium.
    4. sulphur.
  26. A meal consisting of yam and a lot of vegetables is not balanced because it does not contain
    1. carbohydrates.
    2. proteins.
    3. vitamins.
    4. minerals.
  27. In a Biuret test, some proteins was mixed with sodium hydroxide solution. Which of the following chemicals should be added to the mixture for a positive reslut?
    1. Mercurous nitrate.
    2. Copper sulphate.
    3. Sodium carbonate.
    4. Silver nitrate.
  28. A characteristic feature of plant parasites is the
    1. possession of holdfast.
    2. possession of rhizoids.
    3. development of hanging roots.
    4. development of haustoria.
  29. The part of a leguminous plant where bacteria like Azotobacter can be found is
    1. at the nodes of the stem.
    2. at the internodes.
    3. in the root nodules.
    4. in the spongy mesovphyll.
  30. The following adaptations are associated with the flight of birds except
    1. reduced body weight.
    2. streamlined shape.
    3. presence of powerful muscles.
    4. clawed digits.
  31. The following habitats can be found in West Africa except.
    1. mangrove swamp.
    2. sahel savanna.
    3. savanna grassland.
    4. temperate grassland.
  32. The difference between a community and population is
    1. a community is made up of organisms of the same species while a population is made up of organisms of different species.
    2. a community is made up of populations of living organisms while a population is made up of organisms of the same species.
    3. an ecological niche does not exist in the community but it does in a population.
    4. a community attracts competition but a population does not.
  33. :Which of the following statements about the circulation of water in nature is not correct? Water
    1. constantly evaporates from seas, rivers, lakes and soil.
    2. vapour rises, cools, condenses and precipitates as rain and dew.
    3. removed from oceans is permanently lost.
    4. is lost in plants by transpiration and decay.
  34. The diagram below illustrates an ecological instrument. Use it to answer questions 31 and 32.

  35. The instrument is
    1. an anemometer.
    2. a hygrometer.
    3. a barometer.
    4. a wind vane.
  36. The instrument is used to measure the
    1. direction of wind.
    2. speed of wind.
    3. air pressure in a habitat.
    4. turbidity of water.
  37. The following organisms are consumers except
    1. earthworm.
    2. Spirogyra.
    3. bacteria.
    4. Rhizopus.
  38. Use the substances listed below to answer questions 34 and 35

    I. Fertilizer. II. Insecticides. III. Sewage. IV. Crude Oil. V. Sulphur dioxide.

  39. The atmosphere can be polluted by
    1. I only
    2. III only
    3. IV only
    4. II and V only
  40. Which of the substances constitute domestic waste?
    1. I only
    2. III only
    3. IV only
    4. II and V only
  41. The table below shows the oxygen level, number of green plants and fish in rivers flowing through four towns. Which of the towns is likely to be discharging untreated sewage in their river?
    Town Oxygen level Green plants Fish
    A High Few Many
    B Low Many Many
    C High Few Few
    D Low Many Few
  42. Which of the following natural resources is non-renewable?
    1. Water.
    2. Coal.
    3. Forest.
    4. Air.
  43. Which of the following statements is not a reason for banning bush burning? It
    1. allows for quick regrowth of grasses.
    2. kills soil microorganisms.
    3. leaves the soil bare of vegetation.
    4. burns off organic soil nutrients.
  44. Which of the statements below explains why fertilizers are added to soils?
    1. Increasing the humus content of the soil.
    2. Improving the water-retaining property of the soil.
    3. Increasing the nutrient level of the soil.
    4. Preventing soil erosion.
  45. Characteristics that exhibit continuous variation are generally controlled by
    1. a single gene.
    2. recessive genes.
    3. epistatic interactions.
    4. multiple genes.
  46. Differences in characteristics that exist among individuals of the same species is referred to as
    1. genetics.
    2. dominance.
    3. hybrid.
    4. variation.
  47. Which of the following traits is not a morphological variation in humans?
    1. Ability to taste PTC.
    2. Colour.
    3. Fingerprints.
    4. Size.
  48. Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?
    1. All the chromosomes of a species are the same in shape.
    2. The number present in a species is constant.
    3. They are neatly arranged in the cytoplasm.
    4. They bear ribosomes on their outer membranes.
  49. A small stem from a hibiscus plant was placed in a nutrient medium, and it developed into a new plant. The new plant was reproduced
    1. asexually with a different genotype from the parent plant.
    2. sexually with a different genotype from the parent plant.
    3. asexually with the same genotype as the parent plant.
    4. sexually with the same genotype as the parent plant.
  50. The F1 generation of a cross between a red cock and white hen were all red because the gene for the
    1. white colour did not segregate.
    2. red colour was dominant.
    3. white colour was dominant.
    4. red colour was recessive.
  51. Which of the following diseases can be inherited?
    1. Pneumonia.
    2. AIDS.
    3. Sickle cell anaemia.
    4. Goitre.
  52. In dihybrid inheritance, Mendel considered
    1. a pair of contrasting characters.
    2. two pairs of contrasting characters.
    3. three pairs of contrasting characters.
    4. four pairs of contrasting characters.
  53. The main reason for nuptial flight in termites is to
    1. escape unfavourable conditions.
    2. search for food.
    3. form new colonies.
    4. communicate with one another.
  54. Which of the following organisms is not a social insect?
    1. Termites.
    2. Ants.
    3. Grasshoppers.
    4. Bees.
  55. Lamarck’s theory of evolution is based on the fact that
    1. organisms acquire genes from their parents.
    2. organisms pass on acquired characters to their offspring.
    3. characteristics of organisms are determined by the creator.
    4. characteristics of organisms are the sum of their parents’ characters.

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

      1. List three characteristics of living organisms.
      2. Explain briefly the characteristics listed in 1(a)(i) above.
    1. In a tabular form, state four differences between plants and animals.
      1. Name one organism that exhibits both plant and animal features.
      2. State four animal features and two plant features possessed by the organism named in 1(c)(i) above.
    1. Define the following terms:
      1. elimination
      2. excretion
      3. secretion
    2. Describe the digestion of boiled fish in the gut of humans.
    3. Make a diagram 8 cm—10 cm long of a longitudinal section of a villus and label fully.
    1. Explain briefly the following ecological terms
      1. biosphere
      2. habitat
    2. Describe the mode of nutrition in a named carnivorous plant.
    3. State three reasons why the dispersal of fruits and seeds are importatnt.
    4. State six methods of conserving soil.
  1. A survey to determine blood groups was carried out on 250 people living in a community. The results are represented in the table below.
    Blood group Percentage
    A 8.0
    B 14.0
    AB 32.8
    O 45.2
      1. Explain the term co-dominance.
      2. Calculate the number of individuals with co-dominant blood group.
      3. What is the total number of individuals in the table that are able to donate blood to an accident victim with blood group B?
    1. A man whose blood group Is heterozygous A is married to a woman whose blood group is AB. With the aid of a genetic diagram, suggest the possible blood groups of their children.

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

    1. State five reasons why animals move from place to place.
    2. State one function of each of the following structures found in plants:
      1. epidermis;
      2. phloem;
      3. sclerenchyma.
    3. Give two examples each of the following types of organisms:
      1. parasitic plants;
      2. saprophytes
    4. State two adaptive features of plants which inhabit salt water swamp.
    5. State two factors each which result in:
      1. increase
      2. decrease, in population density.
    6. Mention four ways in which modern agricultural activities may threaten the survival of species.
    7. State three reasons why mitosis is important to living organisms.
    8. State three causes of food spoilage.

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Observe specimens A, B, C and D closely and use them to answer questions 1(a) to 1(e).
      1. Classify specimen A into its division and class.
      2. State three observable features of specimen A which are characteristics of the class mentioned in 1(a) (i) above.
    1. State the relationship between specimen A and:
      1. specimen B;
      2. specimen C;
      3. specimen D.
      1. From your observations of specimens B and C, what type of plant is specimen A?
      2. Suggest the agent of pollination of specimen B.
      3. State two reasons for the answer in 1 (c) (ii) above.
    2. Classify specimen D fully according to origin and structure.
    3. Make a drawing 8 cm— 10 cm long of specimen C and label fully.
    1. Study specimens E and F carefully and use them to answer questions 2(a) (i) to 2(a)(iii).
      1. State the class to which each of specimens E and F belong.
      2. List four observable features each of specimens E and F.
      3. State how each of the observed features in 2(a) (ii) adapt each of specimens E and F to their habitats.
    2. Study specimen G and use it to answer questions 2(b) (i) to 2(b)(ii).
      1. Classify specimen G into its phylum and class.
      2. State four observable features of specimen G.
      3. Name one habitat of specimen G.

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

  1. Study specimens, L, M and N carefully and use them to answer questions 4(a) to 4(c).
      1. State the habitats of specimens L, M and N.
      2. State the modes of nutrition of specimens L, M and N.
      3. Explain how each of specimens Land M are adapted to their modes of feeding.
      1. Describe briefly the relationship that exists among specimens L, M and N.
      2. State two ways in which specimen M is of economic importance.
      3. State one way in which specimen M can be controlled.
    1. Make a drawing 8cm— 10cm long of specimen M and label fully.