2015 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. Which of the following organisms is not a protozoan?
    1. Amoeba
    2. Ascaris
    3. Plasmodium
    4. Paramecium
  2. The structure of the cell a membrane is a
    1. double layer and a double protein layer.
    2. middle bi-layer of protein with a lipid layer on either surface.
    3. middle bi-layer of lipid with a protein layer on either surface.
    4. protein layer with two inner lipid layers.
  3. Which of the following cells is a specialized cell?
    1. Amoeba
    2. Plasmodium
    3. Guard cell
    4. Meristematic cell.
  4. The following organisms have structures for movement except
    1. Amoeba.
    2. Spirogyra.
    3. Volvox.
    4. Paramecium.
  5. Which of the following statements about protoplasm of a cell is not correct? It
    1. is a gelatinous mass.
    2. consists of cytoplasm and nucleus.
    3. is the liquid part of the nucleus.
    4. contains cellular organelles.
  6. When a spirogyra filament is placed in a concentrated salt solution for 30 minutes, the cell would become
    1. plasmolysed.
    2. turgid.
    3. shortened.
    4. elongated.
  7. The diagram below is an illustration of a crocodile. Use it to answer questions 7 and 8.

  8. Which of the labelled parts enable the animal to stay under water most of the time?
    1. I, IV and V
    2. I, II and V
    3. I, III and IV
    4. II, IV and V
  9. Two characteristic features of the class to which the crocodile belongs are labelled
    1. I and II.
    2. III and IV.
    3. II and IV.
    4. II and V.
  10. Water and salts are both lost from the human body in
    1. breath and sweat.
    2. breath and urine.
    3. breath, urine, and sweat.
    4. sweat and urine.
  11. Which of the following features could be used to determine the growth of a seedling?
    1. Number of flowers
    2. Number of leaves
    3. Length of flowers
    4. Length of radicle
  12. The following diagrams show the sequence of events in early cell division. Study the diagrams and answer question 11.

  13. In which of the following cells is this division likely to take place?
    1. Sperm cell
    2. Blood cell
    3. Muscle cell
    4. Uterine cell.
  14. A plant that commonly undergoes vegetative propagation by means of leaves is
    1. Hibiscus.
    2. Bryophylum.
    3. Crotalaria.
    4. Spirogyra.
  15. The diagram below illustrates a part of the mammalian skeleton. Use it to answer questions 13 and 14.

  16. The part of the mammalian skeleton illustrated in the diagram is the
    1. atlas vertebrae.
    2. axis vertebrae.
    3. cervical vertebrae.
    4. thoracic vertebrae.
  17. The function of the part labelled I is to
    1. provide support to the spinal cord.
    2. provide surface for attachment of the muscle.
    3. carry the spinal cord.
    4. articulate with adjacent vertebrae.
  18. Blood pressure is higher in the arteries as a result of
    1. stress.
    2. contraction and relaxation
    3. blockage in the arteries.
    4. presence of valves.
  19. A farmer who wants to keep seeds for three years before planting and wants to prevent them from sprouting uses
    1. auxin.
    2. gibberellins.
    3. abscisin.
    4. cytokinins.
  20. A person had an accident that affected the skull but not the nose and later lost the sense of smell. The accident must have affected the
    1. nose by extension.
    2. olfactory lobes of the brain.
    3. passage from the nose to the brain
    4. part of the skull near the nose.
  21. Ability of the human eye to focus images accurately on the retina is called
    1. astigmatism.
    2. myopia.
    3. adjustment.
    4. accommodation.
  22. Which of the following characteristic features is not associated with monocotyledonous plants?
    1. Well differentiated sepals and petals.
    2. Presence of fibrous root system.
    3. Presence of narrow leaves
    4. Floral parts are in multiples of three.
  23. The main difference between a seed and a fruit is that a fruit
    1. is large while a seed is small.
    2. has two scars while a seed has one.
    3. is pigmented while a seed is not.
    4. can be dispersed by animals while a seed cannot.
  24. Which of the following processes removes carbon (IV) oxide from the atmosphere?
    1. Burning fuels
    2. Putrefaction
    3. Photosynthesis
    4. Respiration in plants
  25. A student used the following steps in testing for a non-reducing sugar:

    I. added Benedict's solution to the sugar solution; II. added dilute hydrochloric acid to the sugar solution and boiled it; III. added sodium hydroxide solution to the solution in II and boiled; IV. added Benedict's solution to the cooled solution in III.

    Use the information above to answer questions 22 to 24.

  26. Why did the student add the dilute hydrochloric acid to the sugar solution in step II? To
    1. oxidize the sugar solution.
    2. hydrolyse the sugar solution.
    3. dry the sugar solution.
    4. increase the volume of the sugar solution.
  27. What is the importance of step II in the testing process
    1. neutralize the sugar solution.
    2. soften the sugar solution.
    3. change the colour of the sugar solution
    4. increase the acid content of the sugar solution.
  28. The colour change to be observed in step IV is
    1. blue-black.
    2. brick red.
    3. purple.
    4. violet.
  29. Which of the following organs of the alimentary canal is not correctly matched with its function?
    1. Gall bladder - stores bile
    2. Liver - stores glycogen
    3. Appendix - releases enzymes
    4. Teeth - grind food.
  30. A person suffering from obstruction of the bile duct is advised not to eat fats and oil because
    1. bile digests fats
  31. A community reaches a climax when
    1. only pioneer organisms are present.
    2. new habitats are constantly being formed.
    3. there is an introduction of new plants and animal species within the community.
    4. the composition and size of a community remains constant over a long period.
  32. Which of the following components make up an ecosystem?
    1. Decomposers, animals and non-living factors.
    2. Living and non-living factors.
    3. Plants and non-living factors.
    4. Plants, decomposers and non-living factors.
  33. The major problem ee teres by organisms living in small water bodies is
    1. drying up.
    2. oxygen deficiency.
    3. scarcity of food.
    4. wave action.
  34. The capillarity of a soil refers to
    1. the particle size of soil.
    2. how easily water passes through soil.
    3. how well water rises up in soil.
    4. proportion of water a soil holds.
  35. An organism at the start of a food chain which provides the total input of energy into an ecosystem is the
    1. sun.
    2. producer.
    3. consumer.
    4. decomposer.
  36. Study the diagram below and use it to answer questions 32 to 34.

  37. The mode of nutrition of the plant in the diagram is
    1. photosynthetic and chemosynthetic.
    2. saprophytic and carnivorous.
    3. photosynthetic and carnivorous.
    4. chemosynthetic and saprophytic.
  38. The structure labelled I is
    1. a pitcher.
    2. an onion.
    3. a flower.
    4. a tendril.
  39. In which type of soil is the plant found? Soil that is
    1. poorly aerated.
    2. water logged.
    3. exposed.
    4. nitrogen deficient.
  40. Which of the following organisms is an endo-parasite?
    1. Tapeworm.
    2. Flea.
    3. Tick.
    4. Aphid.
  41. Oil applied to the surface of water kills the larvae of mosquitoes through
    1. dehydration.
    2. poisoning.
    3. starvation.
    4. suffocation.
  42. Which of the following natural resources is most readily available to all organisms?
    1. Oil
    2. Water
    3. Air
    4. Food.
  43. Which of the following resources is non-renewable?
    1. Forest reserve
    2. Mineral deposit
    3. Water
    4. Wild life
  44. Soil erosion could be prevented by
    1. flooding a farmland.
    2. cover cropping
    3. deforestation.
    4. leaving the soil bare
  45. Which of the foll owing statements about human blood groups is not true?
    1. A is dominant over B.
    2. O is recessive.
    3. B is dominant over O.
    4. A and B are co-dominant.
  46. Which of the following traits is not inheritable? Ability to
    1. taste PTC.
    2. roll the tongue.
    3. move the ear.
    4. roll the eyeball.
  47. A woman with blood group A gives birth to a child with blood group O. Which of the following blood groups cannot belong to the father?
    1. A
    2. B
    3. AB
    4. O
  48. How many chromosomes will be in a gamete if the normal cell has four chromosomes?
    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 6
    4. 8
  49. Use the diagram below to answer questions 44 and 45.

  50. Which of the following statements about the cross is correct?
    1. A. The gene for the spotted coat is recessive to the gene for the black coat
    2. Black coat and spotted coat are co-dominant.
    3. The gene for the spotted coat is dominant over the gene for the black coat.
    4. The genotype for the F1 are homozygous dominant
  51. What are the genotypes of the parents if the gene for skin colour is H?
      Spotted Leopard Black Panther
      A. HH hh
      B. HH Hh
      C. Hh Hh
      D. Hh hh
  52. According to Mendel’s first law of inheritance, segregation of genes occur when
    1. tall plants are crossbred.
    2. short plants are crossbred.
    3. tall plants and short plants are crossbred.
    4. plants are crossbred.
  53. Which of the following statements about sex-linked characters is not true?
    1. They are usually borne on the X-chromosome.
    2. They are more common in males.
    3. Males are usually carriers.
    4. They are not usually carried on the Y chromosomes.
  54. In explaining the term camouflage, to a class, the diagram below showing four varieties, P, Q, R, and S of the same species of fish living amongst water plants in a river were used.

    Use the diagram to answer questions 48 to 50.

  55. Which of the varieties is likely to decrease most in number if a predatory fish is introduced into the river?
    1. P
    2. Q
    3. R
    4. S
  56. Which of the varieties is most likely to outlive the others?
    1. P
    2. Q
    3. R
    4. S
  57. The variety selected in question 49 will outlive the others because the
    1. variety is the most beautiful.
    2. variety does not have markings.
    3. markings of the variety are similar to those of the environment.
    4. predator does not like eating the variety.

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

    1. Explain briefly sexual reproduction in Rhizopus.
    2. A student suddenly stepped on a big snake, he cried for help and ran away.
      1. Name the hormone produced in the body for the reaction.
      2. In which part of the human body is the hormone named in 1(a)(i) produced?
      3. State five changes that must have taken place as a result of the hormone named in 1(a)(i)
      1. In a tabular form, state three differences between excretion in flowering plants and excretion in humans.
      2. List two organelles found in a plant cell that are responsible for the excretion of metabolic wastes.
    1. Explain how the leaf of a flowering plant is adapted for photosynthesis.
    2. Describe briefly the mode of feeding in tapeworms.
    3. Name one mineral element each needed for the proper functioning of
      1. bones;
      2. red blood cells;
      3. thyroid gland.
      1. State three benefits of including roughage in the diet of humans.
      2. State three reasons why proteins are important to humans.
      1. What is sewage?
      2. State five effects of releasing untreated sewage into a stagnant water body.
    1. Explain surface terracing as a soil conservation method.
    2. Explain the term adoption.
    3. Explain two ways each by which the following organisms adapt to their habitats:
      1. hydrophytes;
      2. xerophytes.
    1. Explain the following terms:
      1. test cross;
      2. monohybhrid cross
    2. In a mango f-plant, the allele for bean-shaped seed is r and is recessive to round-shaped seed R. With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the genotypes of the offspring if:
      1. a homozygous bean-shaped parent is crossed with a homozygous round shaped parent;
      2. a heterozygous bean-shaped parent is crossed with a heterozygous round shaped parent.

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

    1. Copy and complete the table below
      Disease one effect one remedy
      Kidney stone
      Nephritis
      Diuresis
    2. Make a labelled diagram of the carbon cycle.
      1. What is an Estuarine habitat?
      2. Construct a food chain typical of an Estuarine habitat.
      1. Name two pests and two diseases that can attack plant crops.
      2. State three ways of controlling plant diseases.
    3. State four functions of a public health authority.
    4. State four ways of maintaining food hygiene in the community.


Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

Study specimens A and B carefully and use them to answer questions 1(a) to 1(e).

    1. Classify specimen B into its division and class.
      1. State the types of leaf arrangements in specimens A and B.
      2. Name the shape of specimens A and B.
      1. State the type of leaf margin in specimen A.
      2. State the type of venation found in the leaves of specimens A and B.
      1. List three observable similarities found in specimens A and B.
      2. In a tabular form, state four observable differences between specimen A and B.
    2. Make a drawing 8 - 10 cm long of the leaf of specimen A and label fully.
  1. Study specimens G and H carefully and use the them to answer questions 2(a) to 2(c).

      1. Name the phylum of specimens G and H.
      2. State two reasons for the answer given in 2(a)(i).
    1. Name the structures on specimens G and H. that are used for defence.
      1. State the habitat of each of specimens G and H.
      2. State two ways in which each of specimens G and H are of economic importance.
      3. Study specimen M, N and P carefully and use them to answer questions 2(d) and 2(e).

      1. Name the class of organisms to which each of specimens M, N and P are associated.
      2. State one function common to the specimens named in 2(d)(i).
      3. In a tabular form, state four observable differences between specimens M and P.
    2. Explain three features of biological importance in specimen M.

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

Study specimens T, V and W carefully and use them to answer questions 4(a) and 4(d).

    1. Classify specimens T, V and W according to the following criteria:
      1. agricultural classification;
      2. life cycle.
    2. State two ways in which specimen W is important to human nutrition.
    3. With a scalpel or knife, make a cross section of specimen T.
      1. What type of placentation is observed in the cut section of specimen T?
      2. Name one example of a fruit with similar placentation as observed in the cut section of specimen T.
      3. Make a drawing 10 cm -12 cm long of the transverse section and label fully.
    4. Make a transverse section of specimen V and state:
      1. three observable differences;
      2. three observable similarities; between the transverse sections of specimens T and V.
    5. Study specimen Xi and Xii carefully and use them to answer questions 4(e)(i) and 4(e)(iii).

    6. Carefully remove the bark of specimen Xi to expose the naked part.
      1. State two observable differences between specimens Xi and Xii.
      2. If Xi and Xii are planted, what difference will be noticed after a month?
      3. State one reason for the answer in 4(e)(ii).