2020 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. The cell as the basic unit of life consists of
    1. cell wall and vacuole.
    2. nucleus and cell wall.
    3. cytoplasm and nucleus.
    4. cytoplasm and vacuole.
  2. Use the following Classes of Arthropoda to anwser questions 2 and 3.

    I. Crustacea II. Insecta III. Arachnida IV. Chilopoda

  3. Which members of the Classes live mainly in an aquatic habitat?
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  4. Which of the Classes is characterised by the possession of two pairs of antennae
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  5. The organism with spiral chloroplasts and nucleus suspended by cytoplasmic strands is
    1. Volvox.
    2. Spirogyra.
    3. Paramecium.
    4. Euglena.
  6. The network of double membrane that conveys materials through the cytoplasm is the
    1. plasma membrane.
    2. nuclear membrane.
    3. mitochondrion.
    4. endoplasmic reticulum
  7. The diagram below is an illustration of the longitudinal section of a plant organ. Study it and answer questions 6 to 8.

  8. Food is stored in the part labelled
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  9. The plant is a
    1. stem tuber
    2. bulb
    3. stolon
    4. runner
  10. The part labelled I is the
    1. apical bud
    2. scale leaf
    3. adventitious root
    4. fleshy leaf
  11. Which of the following materials is not a living semi-permeable membrane?
    1. Pig’s bladder
    2. Unripe pawpaw fruit
    3. Yam tuber
    4. Sheet of cellophane
  12. In an experiment, mould and yeast cells were transferred into an environment with low oxygen concentration. After a few days, the mould died while the yeast cells did not. Which of the following statements best explains the above observation?
    1. The yeast cells carried out photosynthesis while the mould did not
    2. Photosynthesis does not take place in the absence of oxygen
    3. Respiration can take place in yeast cells in the absence of oxygen
    4. Respiration does not occur in the mould
  13. Which of the following tissues does not provide support in flowering plants?
    1. Collenchyma
    2. Parenchyma
    3. Xylem
    4. Phloem
  14. The diagram below is an illustration of an experimental set-up. Study it and answer questions 12 and 13.

  15. The set-up directly measures
    1. transpiration of water by the shoot.
    2. evaporation of water from the leaves.
    3. absorption of water by the shoot.
    4. loss of mineral salts from the leaves.
  16. The set-up can measure comparatively the rate of
    1. evaporation from leaves on a single shoot under different experimental conditions.
    2. salt uptake by shoots from different plants.
    3. transpiration of a single shoot of a plant under different experimental conditions.
    4. water uptake by roots of different plants.
  17. The respiratory organ of a cockroach is the
    1. air sac.
    2. trachea.
    3. lung book.
    4. lung
  18. The excretory product of some reptiles, birds and insects is
    1. urea.
    2. urine.
    3. ammonia.
    4. uric acid.
  19. The part of the mammalian kidney that stores urine is the
    1. capsule.
    2. medulla.
    3. pelvis.
    4. bladder.
  20. The properties of endocrine system include the following except
    1. secretion of hormones.
    2. transportation by blood to target organs.
    3. having specific effect
    4. release of secretions into ducts.
  21. The part of the central nervous system that controls unconscious actions in humans is the
    1. cerebellum.
    2. cerebrum.
    3. spinal cord.
    4. optic nerves.
  22. What happens when the ciliary muscles of the eye contract? The
    1. lens becomes more concave.
    2. lens becomes more convex.
    3. lens gets a longer focal length.
    4. suspensory ligament becomes tight.
  23. The diagram below is an illustration of a part of a flower. Study it and answer questions 20 and 21.

  24. The function of the part labelled I is
    1. receiving the pollen grain.
    2. passage for the male gamete to the ovary.
    3. germination of the pollen grain.
    4. site for double fertilization in the plant.
  25. The part labelled II is the
    1. unfused stigma.
    2. fused style.
    3. fused ovaries.
    4. unfused anther.
  26. The reagent used in testing for carbon (IV) oxide is
    1. copper sulphate solution.
    2. lime water.
    3. hydrochloric acid.
    4. sodium hydroxide solution.
  27. Oxygen comes out of the stomata during photosynthesis through the process known as
    1. diffusion.
    2. transpiration pull.
    3. osmosis.
    4. active transport.
  28. The first see product of photosynthesis is A. starch. B. i
    1. starch.
    2. fructose.
    3. glucose.
    4. sucrose.
  29. An example of a trace element is
    1. potassium.
    2. calcium.
    3. magnesium.
    4. copper.
  30. Which of the following statements about a mixture of protein-digesting enzyme and starch solution would be correct? The protein-digesting enzymes
    1. has no effect on the starch solution.
    2. leads to the production of amino acids.
    3. leads to the production of glucose.
    4. digests the starch
  31. A mutualism type of relationship is different from a parasitic relationship because in mutualism,
    1. both organisms involved benefit.
    2. none of the organisms benefits or harm each other.
    3. both organisms harm each other.
    4. only one of the organisms is harmed.
  32. The table below shows the number of some organisms in habitats W and Y. Study it and answer questions 28 to 30.

  33. What type of habitat is W?
    1. Rainforest
    2. Pond
    3. Desert
    4. Ocean
  34. Which of the following statements about habitat W is correct? The
    1. absence of lions and antelopes shows that the habitat is terrestial.
    2. presence of Tilapia and planktons shows that the habitat is not aquatic.
    3. type of organisms present indicate that the habitat is aquatic
    4. absence of grasses indicates that the habitat is terrestrial.
  35. The number of lions and antelopes in habitat Y shows that the lion
    1. is the prey while the antelope is the predator.
    2. is the predator while the antelope is the prey.
    3. and the antelopes are preys to each other.
    4. and the antelopes are predators.
  36. The diagram below is an. illustration of an ecological instrument. Study it and answer questions 31 and 32.

  37. A disadvantage of the abiotic factor measured by the instrument is that it
    1. is agent of pollination.
    2. is necessary for germination.
    3. leads to flooding when in excess.
    4. is used for irrigation.
  38. When the instrument is in use, it is usually
    1. placed slightly above soil level.
    2. placed on a table.
    3. suspended in air.
    4. suspended on moving water.
  39. Soil with the finest texture is
    1. silt.
    2. clay.
    3. sand.
    4. gravel.
  40. The position occupied by an organism in a food chain is the
    1. energy level.
    2. niche.
    3. trophic level.
    4. biomass.
  41. The depletion of the ozone layer will result in the earth surface receiving more
    1. gamma rays.
    2. infra-red rays.
    3. ultraviolet rays.
    4. X-rays.
  42. Use the list of insects below to answer questions 36 and 37.

    I Cotton stainer II Honeybee III Termite IV Weevil.

  43. The insects whose activities are both beneficial and harmful to humans are
    1. I and II
    2. II and III
    3. III and IV
    4. II and IV
  44. Which of the insects destroys grains?
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  45. Conservation of natural resources does not
    1. maintain a balanced ecosystem.
    2. preserve the beauty of nature.
    3. attract tourists.
    4. threaten the survival of species.
  46. A company was prohibited from producing bags made from natural leopard skin. This is an attempt to conserve
    1. land.
    2. water.
    3. wildlife.
    4. wildlife.
  47. Which of the following substances is not a conservable natural resource?
    1. Mineral
    2. Air
    3. Soil
    4. Water
  48. A child that can receive blood donation from anybody belongs to the blood group
    1. O.
    2. A.
    3. B.
    4. AB.
  49. Variation which exhibits a wide range from one extreme to the other is
    1. phenotypic variation.
    2. discontinuous variation.
    3. continuous variation.
    4. genotypic variation.
  50. Measurements of height and weight of students in a'class show
    1. discontinuous variation.
    2. continuous variation.
    3. shortness is more prevalent.
    4. fatness is less prevalent.
  51. Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?
    1. All the chromosomes of a species are the same in shape.
    2. The number present in a species is constant.
    3. They are neatly arranged in the cytoplasm.
    4. They bear ribosomes on their outer membrane.
  52. Which of the following diseases can be inherited?
    1. Pneumonia.
    2. Whooping cough.
    3. Sickle cell anaemia.
    4. Malaria.
  53. The diagram below is an illustration of a cross between plants A and B of the same species. Study it and answer questions 46 and 47.

  54. If the F1 generation are plants with high yield and resistance, the genotype of the F1 generation plants would be
    1. YYRR
    2. YyRr.
    3. yyRr.
    4. yyRr.
  55. The process that gave rise to the F1 generation is
    1. self fertilization.
    2. cross fertilization.
    3. out-breeding.
    4. test cross.
  56. Replication of DNA molecules is catalysed by an enzyme called
    1. polymerase.
    2. ptyalin.
    3. pepsin.
    4. amylase.
  57. Who proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection?
    1. Darwin
    2. Lamarck
    3. Aristotle
    4. Linnaeus
  58. Which of the following statements best explains the reason why termites swarm at night?
    1. Light is not necessary for swarming.
    2. They avoid day-flying birds.
    3. Light destroys their wings.
    4. They can only see in the dark.

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

    1. Explain briefly how the human ear carries out its function of balancing.
      1. Make a drawing 8 cm — 10 cm long of the structure of the human ear and label fully
      2. Describe briefly the structure of the middle ear in humans.
      1. What is a deficiency disease?
      2. Complete the table below by naming five nutrient deficiency diseases in humans and stating one remedy each for the diseases.
      3. Table here
    1. Outline a chemical test for
      1. starch in a tuber of yam
      2. glucose in orange fruit
    1. Complete the table below:
      1. Table here
    2. Explain briefly the biological basis of preserving foods using each of the following methods:
      1. salting
      2. irradiation
      3. smoking.
    1. Explain briefly:
      1. independent assortment of genes
      2. the reason blood group O in human can only exist in homozygous form while blood groups A and B can exist both in homozygous and heterozygous forms.
    2. Complete the table below by naming the Classes of vertebrates in their evolutionary trend and giving one example each of the classes
      1. Table here

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

    1. Explain briefly the following types of fertilization in animals:
      1. external fertilization
      2. internal fertilization
    2. Name two groups of animals each that exhibit the types of fertilization in 6a
      1. external fertilization
      2. internal fertilization
      1. If the placenta in a pregnant woman is detached from the uterine wall give three effects this would have on the foetus.
      2. Name three other features in the uterus of pregnant woman that are useful for the development of the foetus.
    3. Explain briefly how the activities of organisms bring about dynamic equilibrium in the habitat.
    4. State four problems that organisms in the intertidal zone of a marine habitat could encounter.
    5. Explain briefly the reason that following factors are necessary for germination:
      1. moisture.
      2. viable seed.
    6. Explain briefly the reason light energy is considered a limiting factor in the production of food by autotrophs.

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Study Specimens B, C and D and answer questions 1(a) to 1(f)
      1. Place two drops of specimen B on a white tile and add two drops of iodine solution. Complete the table below with the test, observation and inference: table here
      2. Put 5 ml of specimen B into a test tube and add 2 ml of sodium hydroxide solution followed by three drops of copper(II)tetraoxosulphate(VI) solution and shake. Complete the table below with the test, observation and inference: table here
    1. Give the name of each of the tests in 1(a)(i) and I(a)
      1. ..............................
      2. .............................
    2. State two ways by which specimen C is of economic importance.
      1. Name the Kingdom to which specimen C belongs.
      2. State three reasons for the answer in 1(d)(i)
      3. Name four other organisms that belong to the same Kingdom as specimen C.
      1. Name the Phylum to which specimen D belongs
      2. State three reasons for the answer in 1(d)(i).
      1. Explain briefly the role of specimen C in nutrient cycling.
      2. What is the mode of nutrition of specimen C?
  2. Study Specimens E, F, and H and answer questions 2(a) to 2(f).
    1. What types of fruits are specimens E, F, and H?
      1. E: ............................
      2. F: ............................
      3. H: ...........................
    2. Name the types of placentation possessed by each of specimens E and F.
      1. E: ............................
      2. F: ............................
    3. Name one agent of dispersal each of specimens E, F, and H?
      1. E: ............................
      2. F: ............................
      3. H: ...........................
      1. Explain briefly how specimen E is dispersed.
      2. State two types of nutrients present in specimen E.
      1. What is the colour of specimen H?
      2. hat does the colour of specimen H signify?
    4. Using the scalpel/blunt knife provided, cut open specimen H along the line of split from one side only.
      1. Name the type of placentation found in specimen H.
      2. Make a drawing, 6 cm to 8 cm long of the two split halves of specimen H while still joined at one length and label fully.

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

  1. Study Specimens P, Q and R and answer questions 4(a) to 4(d).
    1. Use the information below to complete the following table.
      1. Add two drops of specimen P into a beaker containing water,leave it undisturbed and note the time it completely disperses in water.
      2. Add a levelled teaspoonful of specimen Q into another beaker containing water, stir for one second and note the time it takes to completely dissolve.
      3. Cut open specimen R and note the time the odour was perceived
      4. Give the medium of spread for each of the tests in 4(a)(i) to 4(a)(ii)
      5. Name the sense organ in humans involved in each of the observations in 4(a)(i) to 4(a)(iii) table here
    2. Name the biological phenomenon that occurred in 4(a)(iii)
    3. State two factors each that will increase the rate of the phenomenon name in 4(b) for each of the activities in 4(a)(i), (ii) and (iii).
      1. ..............................
      2. ..............................
      3. ..............................
    4. Gently place your thumb on the inked stamp pad provided
      1. Neatly thumbprint clearly showing the pattern in the box below (box here)
      2. Name the type of pattern in the fingerprint in 4(d)(i).
      3. List three other types of fingerprints.
      4. State three advantages of fingerprints.
      5. What type of variation is fingerprint?