2012 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

1. Question 1
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
2. Question 2
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
3. Question 3
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
4. Question 4
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
5. Question 5
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
6. Question 6
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
7. Question 7
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
8. Question 8
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
9. Question 9
   1. Option a
   2. Option b
   3. Option c
   4. Option d
10. Question 10
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
11. Question 11
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
12. Question 12
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
13. Question 13
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
14. Question 14
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
15. Question 15
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
16. Question 16
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
17. Question 17
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
18. Question 18
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
19. Question 19
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
20. Question 20
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
21. Question 21
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
22. Question 22
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
23. Question 23
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
24. Question 24
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
25. Question 25
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
26. Question 26
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
27. Question 27
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
28. Question 28
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
29. Question 29
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
30. The purpose of pele in the diet of a maminal is to
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
31. Excess carbohydrates can be stored in the muscles in the form of
    1. cellulose.
    2. glycogen.
    3. chitin.
    4. lipids.
32. The bones of the legs of a six years old boy are observed to be weak and crooked. Which of the following elements were deficient in his mother's diet at pregnancy
    1. Sodium and iron
    2. Iron and manganese
    3. Calcium and phosphorus
    4. Magnesium and sulphur
33. The disgrarn above is an illustration of an experimental set-up to test the action of yeast. What test would be used to confirm the nature of the gas given off at I?
    1. Insert a glowing splint
    2. Pass the gas through lime water
    3. Insert a piece of litmus paver
    4. Smell the gas
34. Which of the following digestive enzymes would be greatly affected if the liver fails to produce bile?  
    1. Amylase
    2. Cellulase
    3. Lipase
    4. Protease
35. The appropriate food to be given to the child in the picture above is
    1. beans.
    2. garri.
    3. bread.
    4. avocado pear.
36. Which of the following food substances will have little or no calorific value?
    1. Proteins
    2. Carbohydrate
    3. Lipids
    4. Water
37. A space containing a group of interactive organisms is called
    1. community
    2. habitat
    3. ecosystem
    4. population
38. The area around the earth where life activities go on is referred to as
    1. Biosphere
    2. Lithosphere
    3. Habitat
    4. Ecosystem
39. The following are abiotic components of the ecosystem except
    1. bacteria.
    2. topography.
    3. water,
    4. wind.
40. Which of the following instruments would be most appropriate in comparing the air pressure at different places in a habitat?
    1. Hygrometer
    2. Barometer
    3. Photometer
    4. Air pressure disc
41. The best title for the above diagram is
    1. terrestrial food web.
    2. terrestrial food chain.
    3. aquatic food web.
    4. aquatic food chain.
42. How many food chains are in the diagram?
    1. Three
    2. Four
    3. Five
    4. Six
43. Plants with breathing roots are characteristic features of vegetation in
    1. tropical grassland
    2. temperate grassland
    3. salt water swamp
    4. tropical rain forest
44. In which of the zones can very few organisms be found
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
45. Which of the following factors exerts a major effect on the distribution of living organism in the habitat?
    1. Salt
    2. pH
    3. Light
    4. Rainfall
46. The use of water closet and septic tanks is preferred to the use of bucket and pit latrines because
    1. it is cost effective.
    2. contaminated faeces are completely kept away from flies.
    3. the water for flushing contains chlorine which kills the germs.
    4. it prevents flies from breeding.
47. The detection of vibro cholerae in public drinking water is a sign of
    1. clean water.
    2. outbreak of disease.
    3. water pollution.
    4. decayed organisms in the water.
48. Which of the following factors would be least likely to act as a density depot limiting factor in a population of mice?
    1. Build up of waste products
    2. Predation
    3. Parasitism
    4. Unfavorable climate
49. The primary cause of species endangerment is
    1. disappearing habitats.
    2. increasing temperatures.
    3. acid rain.
    4. exposure to hazardous wastes.
50. The following pairs of traits are examples of continuous and discontinuous variations respectively except
    1. eye color and body weight.
    2. height and blood group.
    3. skin colour and fingerprints.
    4. body weight and tongue rolling.
51. Which of the following statements is true about the ABO blood group system?
52. Antigens are located on the surface of white blood cells.
53. Antibodies are located in the blood plasma.
54. Antibodies are located on the surface of red blood cells.
55. Antigens are located in the blood plasma.
56. The classes of fingerprints in man are
57. whorl, alternate, opposite and compound.
58. compound, loop, whorl and alternate.
59. whorl, arch, compound and loop.
60. arch, simple, compound and opposite.
61. Which of the following diseases is transmittable through genes?
62. HIV/AIDS
63. Sickle cell anaemia
64. Diabetes
65. Presbyopia.
66. Two plants with red flowers were back crossed, which of the following results indicate that the plants are heterozygous red flowers, where red flowers are dominant?
67. 75% red and 25% white
68. 50% red and 50% white
69. 100% white
70. 100% red
71. In the structure of DNA, which of the following statements is true?
72. The double helix are held together by covalent bonds
73. Nucleotide is made up of ribose, phosphate and an organic nitrogen compound
74. Guanine is the opposite of cytosine
75. Adenine is the opposite of cytosine
76. In a case of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio of the cross Bb X Bb; where B =black and b = white?
77. 1 black : 1 grey : 2 whites
78. 1 black : 3 whites
79. 1 black : 2 blues : 1 white
80. 3 blacks : 1 white
81. Two yellow-flowered hybrid plants each carrying a recessive factor for flowers with green colour were crossed. Which of the following ratios shows the correct proportion of offspring that have green flowers?
82. 2 in 2
83. 1 in 3
84. 1 in 4
85. 1 in 5
86. What name is given to a sudden change in a gene or chromosome?
87. Allele
88. Genotype
89. Mutation
90. Phenotype
91. Bees are of great importance to the farmer because they
92. provide him with honey.
93. pollinate flowers.
94. sting crop pests to death.
95. destroy flowers by sucking nectar from them.
96. Which of the following sequences is the correct evolutionary trend in plants?
97. Algae → liverworts → mosses →ferns
98. Liverworts → mosses → ferns → algae
99. Mosses → algae → ferns → liverworts
100. Ferns → liverworts → mosses → algae

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

1. 1. Explain briefly four factors that affect the diffusion of substances.
   2. Explain the following terms:
      1. active transport;
      2. transpiration.
   3. State four ways by which plants can reduce high rate of transpiration.
   4. State the features of red blood cells and how these features adapt the cell to perform its functions.
2. 1. Describe briefly the role of the stomach in digestion.
   2. 1. Name three parts of plants in which food can be stored.
      2. Give one example in each case.
   3. Explain briefly how the level of sugar in the mammalian blood can be regulated.
3. 1. Explain briefly the following terms:
      1. conservation;
      2. endangered species.
   2. State;
      1. five reasons why conservation of forests is important;
      2. four ways by which forest reserves can be conserved.
   3. 1. What is the importance of decomposers in the ecosystem?
      2. Name one plant and one animal decomposer.
4. 1. 1. What is a gene?
      2. Differentiate between the terms genotype and phenotype.
   2. Explain the following terms:
      1. hybrid,
      2. pure breeding,
      3. nucleotide.
   3. In garden pea seeds, smooth seed coat is dominant over rough seed coat. With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the result expected if a homozygous rough pea is crossed with a smooth seed coat plant whose parents were rough coated.

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

6. Question 6
   1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
   6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

1. Study carefully specimens A and B and use them to answer questions 1(a) to 1(c).
   1. 1. Name the types of fruit in specimens A and B with reasons.
      2. Make a drawing, 8 - 10 cm long of the lateral view of specimen B and label fully.
   2. Describe the modes of dispersal of specimens A and B.
   3. In a tabular form, state five differences between specimens A and B.
2. Study carefully specimens C, D and E and use them to answer questions 2(a) to 2(c).
   1. 1. State the mode of nutrition of specimen D.
      2. State one way by which each of specimens C, D and E is of economic importance.
   2. 1. Classify specimens C, D and E into their phyla and classes.
      2. List three observable characteristic features of each of the classes to which specimens C, D and E belong.
      3. In a tabular form, state two observable differences between specimens C and D.
   3. List four observable features of specimen E that are sensory in nature.

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

4. Study carefully specimens J, K and L and use them to answer questions 4(a) to 4(d).
   1. 1. State the class of each of specimens J, K and L
      2. State three reasons each for placing each of specimens J, K and L in their classes.
   2. State two structural adaptations possessed by each of specimens K and L for escaping predators.
   3. Make a drawing, 8 - 10 cm long of the lateral view of specimen J.
   4. State;
      1. two similarities;
      2. two observable differences between specimens J and L.