2015 Physics WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Physics 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. Which of the following statements about mass and weight are correct? I Weight is the force of gravity on a body II The mass of a body is the greatest quantity of matter in the body III The weight of a body is greatest at the equator IV The mass of a body is greatest at the poles
    1. I and II only
    2. I and III only
    3. II and IV only
    4. III and IV only
  2. Materials that can be stretched and still return to heir original form when the stresses are removed are said to be
    1. elastic
    2. elastomer
    3. plastic
    4. thermoplastic
  3. Which of the following units is derived?
    1. kg
    2. m
    3. K
    4. N
  4. The barometric reading at a place is 73.5 cmHg. Calculate the pressure at a point 30m above the surface of water contained in a reservoir at the place. [g=density of mercury =, density of water = ]
  5. An object floats in liquid when it displaces its
    1. volume of fluid in which it floats
    2. mass of fluid in which it floats
    3. weight of fluid in which it floats
    4. density of fluid in which it floats
  6. The resultant force in a couple is
    1. zero
    2. infinite
    3. the sum of the forces
    4. the product of the forces.
  7. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents
    1. uniform acceleration
    2. uniform speed.
    3. total distance travelled.
    4. work done.
  8. A body is projected with an initial velocity u at an angle θ to the horizontal. The time taken by it to reach its maximum height is given by the expression
  9. Which of the following statements describes a body in a stable equilibrium correctly?
    1. person walking on a tight-rope.
    2. ball on a smooth horizontal table.
    3. ball resting on an inverted hemispherical bowl.
    4. ball in the middle of a hemispherical bowl
  10. Ina school compound, a girl walks 40 m due east from the laboratory to the staff room to submit her report. Then she turns and walks 30 m due north to her classroom. Determine the magnitude of her displacement from the laboratory.
    1. 10m
    2. 35m
    3. 50m
    4. 70m
  11. Two strings each inclined at an angle of 30° to the horizontal are used to hold a bucket of water weighing 20 N. Calculate the tension in each string.
    1. 20 N
    2. 10 N
  12. A bullet fired vertically upwards reaches a height of 500 m. Neglecting air resistance, calculate the magnitude of the initial velocity of the bullet. [g=]
  13. A uniform bar AB is balanced on a knife-edge which is 60cm from B by a mass of 22 g which hangs at C 10cm from A as illustrated in the diagram above. calculate the mass of the bar.
    1. 133.2 g
    2. 66.0 g
    3. 60.0 g
    4. 22.0 g
  14. A body of 6 mass 1000 kg is released from a height of 10m above the ground. Determine its kinetic energy just before it strikes the ground. [g=]
    1. 10 J
    2. J
    3. J
    4. J
  15. The diagrams below illustrate four test-tubes containing the same volume of a liquid at different pressures. In which of the test-tubes does the liquid boil last if they are supplied with the same quantity of heat?
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  16. The crackling noise produced by aluminum roofing sheets on a house during a hot sunny day is as a result of
    1. thermal equilibrium of the sheets.
    2. conduction of heat by the sheets.
    3. contraction of the sheets.
    4. expansion of the sheets.
  17. Water is unsuitable for use as a thermometric liquid because it
    1. expands unevenly between 0°C and 4°C.
    2. has a narrow temperature range.
    3. has a concave meniscus.
    4. maintains a fixed density.
  18. The diagram above illustrates a block and tackle pulley system in which an effort E supports a load of 100.0 N. If the efficiency of the machine is 75%, calculate the value of E.
    1. 22.2 N.
    2. 38.0N.
    3. 67.0 N.
    4. 75.0.N.
  19. A quantity of hot water at 100°C is added to 400 g of water at 10°C until the temperature of the mixture is 60°C. Calculate the mass of the hot water added. [Specific heat capacity of water= ]
    1. 200g.
    2. 320g.
    3. 400g
    4. 500g.
  20. In an experiment in which a molten substance is allowed to cool, the cooling curve shown above was obtained. The temperature 60°C is known as the
    1. vaporization point.
    2. cooling temperature.
    3. boiling point.
    4. melting point.
  21. Which of the following concepts is a method of heat transfer that does not require a material medium
    1. Conduction
    2. Radiation.
    3. Diffusion.
    4. Convention.
  22. Which of the following units is the S.J. unit of heat capacity 2?
  23. The pressure applied to an enclosed fluid at one end is transmitted equally throughout the fluid and to the container walls. This statement is
    1. Archimedes' principle.
    2. Bernoulli’s principle.
    3. Pascal’s principle.
    4. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
  24. The diagram above illustrates a wave form. Determine the speed of the wave.
  25. What type of wave is emitted by a loud speaker?
    1. Transverse.
    2. Longitudinal.
    3. Gamma.
    4. Radio.
  26. An object is placed 15 cm from a diverging lens of focal length 12 cm, The image of the object formed by the lens is
    1. real and 6.67 cm from the lens.
    2. virtual and 6.67 cm from the lens.
    3. real and 60.00 cm from the lens.
    4. virtual and 60.00 cm from the lens.
  27. Which of the following types of lenses is suitable for correcting the eye defect illustrated by the ray diagram above?
    1. Bi-converging.
    2. Bi-diverging.
    3. Plano diverging.
    4. Diverging meniscus.
  28. A swimming pool is 2.1 m deep. If it contains water of refractive index 1.3, calculate the apparent depth of the pool.
    1. 3.4m.
    2. 2.7m.
    3. 1.6m.
    4. 0.8 m.
  29. When an air column is set into vibrations, the distance between two consecutive nodes of the resultant wave is
    1. one-quarter of the wavelength.
    2. one-half of the wavelength.
    3. the wave length.
    4. twice the wavelength.
  30. A girl standing some distance from the foot of a tall cliff claps her hands and hears the echo 0.8 s later. Calculate her distance from the cliff. [Speed of sound in air =
    1. 82m.
    2. 102m.
    3. 128 m.
    4. 140 m.
  31. Red light travels faster than blue light when both of them pass through a glass prism because the
    1. refractive index of red light is greater than that of blue light.
    2. refractive index of blue light is greater than that of red light.
    3. red light is more intense than the blue light.
    4. blue light is more intense than the red light.
  32. An object is placed 20 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 1 5 cm. Calculate the linear magnification of the image formed.
    1. 0.5.
    2. 1.5.
    3. 2.0.
    4. 3.0.
  33. All electromagnetic waves in a vacuum have the same
    1. wavelength.
    2. frequency.
    3. speed.
    4. amplitude.
  34. The diagram above illustrates two charged particles W and X. The charges on W and X are respectively
    1. negative; negative.
    2. negative; positive.
    3. positive; positive.
    4. positive; negative.
  35. An alternating current supply is connected to an electric lamp which lights with the same brightness as does with a direct current source of emf 6 V. The peak potential difference of the a.c. supply is
    1. 4.6 V
    2. 6.0 V
    3. 8.5 V
    4. 120.4 V
  36. An electric generator rated 12 KW, 2 kV distributes power through a cable of resistance 20 Q. Calculate the power loss in the cable.
    1. 120 W
    2. 360 W
    3. 720W
    4. 2400W
  37. Which of the following statements is correct? When capacitors of different values are connected in series
    1. the same charge flows through them.
    2. the same voltage appears across each capacitor.
    3. different quantities of charges flow through them with different voltages across them.
    4. different quantities of charges flow through them with the same voltage across them.
  38. Which of the following statement(s) about a three-pin plug is/are correct? I The brown wire is the live wire II The fuse is connected to the live wire III The earth wire is coloured blue
    1. I Only
    2. II Only
    3. I and II Only
    4. I, II and III
  39. The symbol illustrated above is that of a resistor
    1. which absorbs light,
    2. which emits light.
    3. which absorbs heat to function properly
    4. whose resistance is light dependent
  40. A wire of cross-sectional area 0.60 has a resistivity . Calculate the length of wire that will have a resistance of 3 Ω.
    1. 0.25 m.
    2. 2.50 m.
    3. 3.60 m.
    4. 36.00 m.
  41. A battery of emf 24 V is connected to three resistors P, Q and R as illustrated in the diagram above. Determine the voltage across the resistor Q.
    1. 5V
    2. 10V
    3. 14V
    4. 24V
  42. The mass of the earth is and that of the moon is . If the distance between them is , calculate the force of attraction between them[G=]
  43. The angle which the direction of the earth magnetic field makes with the horizontal at a place is known as
    1. angle of contact.
    2. angle of dip.
    3. angle of declination.
    4. magnetic meridian.
  44. What must be connected between the points P and Q to establish a steady current through the incomplete circuit diagram illustrated above?
    1. Fuse.
    2. Ammeter.
    3. Cell
    4. Voltmeter.
  45. When current flows through a moving-coil galvanometer. the force exerted on the pointer depends on the I strength of the current; II magnetic field strength: II length of the coil. Which of the statement(s) above it/are correct?
    1. I Only
    2. II Only
    3. I and II Only
    4. I, II and III
  46. Ina nuclear fission process, the mass defect was 1.2 x10 kg. Calculate the energy released. [Speed of light in vacuum = ]
  47. Which of the following statements about a diode is correct?
    1. Reverse bias diodes have low resistance
    2. Forward bias diodes have high resistance.
    3. Forward bias diodes produce high current.
    4. Forward bias diodes function as a result of heat.
  48. Which of the following phenomena best supports the wave nature of matter?
    1. Electron diffraction.
    2. Photoelectric effect.
    3. Electron momentum.
    4. Black body radiation.
  49. Which of the following radiations constitutes a stream of electrons?
    1. Gamma rays.
    2. X-rays.
    3. Cathode rays.
    4. Radio waves.
  50. emits two alpha particles to produce Polonium nuclide. The correct formula for the nuclide is

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Part 1

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 3
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  4. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  5. Question 5
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  6. Question 6
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  7. Question 7
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Part 2

  1. Question 8
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 9
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 10
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  4. Question 11
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  5. Question 12
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Physics 3 - Practical Questions

Alternative A

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 3
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v