2019 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. Which of the following structures will not be found in the nucleus of a cell?
    1. DNA
    2. Nucleolus
    3. Lysosome
    4. Centriole
  2. An example of organ level of organization
    1. bird
    2. kidney
    3. spermatozoon
    4. xylem
  3. Structural similarity between Paramecium and Amoeba is the presence of
    1. one food vacuole
    2. two contractile vacuoles
    3. two nuclei
    4. one gullet
  4. The classes of plants the root systems in diagram I and II below represent respectively
    1. Dicotyledoneae and Monocotyledoneae
    2. Monocotyledoneae and Dicotyledoneae
    3. Dicotyledoneae and Dicotyledoneae
    4. Monocotyledoncace and Monocotyledoncae
  5. What stage of cell division is illustrated in the diagram?
    1. Prophase
    2. Metaphase
    3. Anaphase
    4. Telophase
  6. The part labelled I is the
    1. centromere
    2. spindle fibre
    3. centriole
    4. chiasmata
  7. The rate of diffusion of molecules between two media will be higher if
    1. the difference in concentration of the two media is low
    2. the difference in concentration of the two media is negligible
    3. the difference in concentration of the two media is high
    4. there is no difference in the concentration of the two media
  8. Anaerobic respiration in the organism illustrated in the diagram below produces carbon dioxide and
    1. ethanol
    2. water
    3. oxygen
    4. glucose
  9. Underground storage stems which grow horizontally in the soil are
    1. bulbs
    2. runners
    3. rhizomes
    4. corms
  10. Muscle fatigue in the body of an athlete is due to
    1. low pH
    2. high oxygen content
    3. accumulation of lactic acid
    4. accumulation of carbonic acid
  11. The heart can beat continuously without being fatigued because it is composed of
    1. skeletal muscles
    2. smooth muscles
    3. cardiac muscles
    4. renal muscles
  12. The products of tissue respiration are
    1. glucose, oxygen and water
    2. oxygen, water and energy
    3. glucose, carbon dioxide and energy
    4. water, carbon dioxide and energy
  13. Excretory products in plants responsible for the decolouration of flowers are called
    1. alkaloids
    2. tannins
    3. anthocyanins
    4. resins
  14. The process of maintaining a steady internal environment is known as
    1. osmoregulation
    2. equilibration
    3. homeostasis
    4. plasmolysis
  15. Which of the following statements is not true about hormones?
    1. Their responses are voluntary
    2. They may affect more than one target organ
    3. They are chemical messengers in animals
    4. They are transported by the blood to the target organs
  16. The part labelled II is the
    1. olfactory lobe
    2. cerebellum
    3. cerebrum
    4. medulla oblongata
  17. The function of the part labelled II is that it controls
    1. posture and balance of body
    2. all voluntary actions
    3. temperature and appetite
    4. many involuntary actions
  18. To focus on a distant object, the ciliary muscle of the eye
    1. contracts and the eye lens gets thicker
    2. relaxes and the eye lens gets thinner
    3. contracts and the eye lens gets thinner
    4. relaxes and the eye lens gets thicker
  19. The main function of the amniotic fluid is for
    1. respiration in the foetus
    2. protection of the foetus from shock
    3. lubricating the birth canal
    4. nourishing the foetus
  20. Which part of the flower is responsible for the protection of young flower buds?
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  21. The essential parts of the flower are labelled
    1. I, II and III
    2. II,III and IV
    3. III, V and VI
    4. IV, V and VI
  22. Deficiency in insulin could lead to
    1. cirrhosis
    2. hepatitis
    3. diabetes
    4. nephritis
  23. Which of the following forms of energy is utilized during photosynthesis?
    1. Potential
    2. Kinetic
    3. Solar
    4. Chemical
  24. Light is excluded from a water culture experiment in order to
    1. prevent overheating of the roots
    2. enable the roots to grow straight down
    3. prevent ionization of water molecules
    4. prevent the growth of algae
  25. The major mineral present in the shell of Molluscs is
    1. copper
    2. sodium
    3. iron
    4. calcium
  26. The digestion of proteins starts in the
    1. small intestine
    2. stomach
    3. large intestine
    4. mouth
  27. Tooth decay is usually caused by
    1. undigested and absorbed food
    2. eating limited amount of sweetened food
    3. the bacteria in the mouth that metabolize sugar to acids
    4. eating a lot of proteinous foods
  28. The conversion of ammonium salts into nitrates is called
    1. putrefaction
    2. denitrification
    3. fixation
    4. nitrification
  29. The salinity of a brackish habitat increases immediately after rainfall
    1. increases immediately after rainfall
    2. increases at the end of the rainy season
    3. decreases with an increase in the number of organisms
    4. increases during the dry season
  30. If 90 ants are found in a field with a total area of 100m; what is the population density of the ants?
    1. 0.09
    2. 0.90
    3. 9.00
    4. 90.00
  31. The complex relationship between the members of a community and their physical environment Is known as
    1. commensalism
    2. symbiosis
    3. saprophytism
    4. ecology
  32. The specific role of a species within its environment is known as its
    1. habitat
    2. niche
    3. trophic level
    4. biotic community
  33. Which of the following soil fertility improvement methods will have the most negative effect on the ecosystem if not controlled?
    1. Application of N-P-K fertilizer
    2. Shifting cultivation
    3. Mixed farming
    4. Crop rotation
  34. Organisms in an ecosystem are usually grouped according to their trophic level into
    1. carnivores an omnivores
    2. consumers and parasites
    3. producers, and saprophytes
    4. Producers and consumers
  35. In the pyramid of energy illustrated below, the organism with the least amount of transferred energy is
    1. Spirogyra
    2. tadpole
    3. fish
    4. bird
  36. Tall trees with unbranched trunks which grow above the upper storey of the forest are commonly referred to as
    1. emergents
    2. herbs
    3. lianes
    4. shrubs
  37. Maize grains are best stored against insect attacks by
    1. keeping in a silo
    2. storing in the room
    3. leaving them on their cobs
    4. covering with leaves
  38. Cholera is mostly spread by
    1. air
    2. soil
    3. water
    4. noise
  39. Which of the following resources is renewable?
    1. Petroleum
    2. Coal
    3. Iron
    4. Trees
  40. Which of the following roles is not performed by a government agency responsible for forest maintenance?
  41. Which of the following factors is not a source of variation in living organisms?
    1. Environment
    2. Inheritance
    3. Mitosis
    4. Meiosis
  42. Individuals with blood group AB can donate blood to individuals with blood group(s)
    1. A and B
    2. A and O
    3. AB only
    4. O only
  43. The process occurs in the
    1. nucleus
    2. mitochondria
    3. Golgi body
    4. cytoplasm
  44. The process is called
    1. replication
    2. cell maturation
    3. crossing over
    4. mutation
  45. Which of the following nucleotides is not found in the DNA molecule?
    1. Adenine
    2. Cytosine
    3. Guanine
    4. Uracil
  46. In a complete dominance monohybrid cross between a pure breeding yellow flowered plant Y and a pure breeding white flowered plant y
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  47. Question 47
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  48. Question 48
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  49. Question 49
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  50. Question 50
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 3
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  4. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

  1. Question 6
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

  1. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
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