2017 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

  1. Which of the following groups of animals do not Possess a nervous system?
    1. Porifera
    2. Cnidaria
    3. Platyhelminthes
    4. Nematoda
  2. The structural similarities in Paramecium and Euglena are in the
    1. shape of locomotory organs.
    2. blunt anterior and pointed posterior.
    3. presence of micro and mega nuclei in both.
    4. presence of anterior and posterior contractile vacuoles.
  3. Which of the following organisms cannot exist freely on its own?
    1. Chlamydomonas
    2. Amoeba
    3. Paramecium
    4. Plasmodium
    4. The diagram below is an illustration of an Arthropod. Study it and answer question 4.
  4. The Arthropod in the diagram is not an insect because it
    1. has a big head which is almost equal to the “thorax.
    2. has eight legs and no wings.
    3. does not have visible eyes on its head.
    4. has head, thorax and abdomen.
  5. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for the production of ATP?
    1. Lysosome
    2. Nucleus
    3. Mitochondrion
    4. Ribosome
  6. An example of osmosis in plants is the
    1. movement of water through the xylem.
    2. loss of water vapour from the stomata.
    3. translocation of food through the phloem.
    4. absorption of water from the soil by the root.
  7. The organism that can carry out both autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition is
    1. Chlamydomonas.
    2. Eudorina
    3. Euglena
    4. Spirogyra
    8. The diagram below illustrates a part of the human skeleton. Study it and answer questions 8 to 10.
  8. The diagram represents the bones of the
    1. upper arm
    2. lower arm
    3. upper leg
    4. lower leg
  9. Which of the labelled parts articulates with the head of the trochlea to form a hinge joint?
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  10. The labelled part that provides surface for the attachment of the triceps is
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  11. The diagram below illustrates the transverse section of a
    1. dicotyledonous root
    2. monocotyledonous root
    3. dicotyledonous stem
    4. monocotyledonous stem
  12. Which of the following actions does not occur during exhalation in man?
    1. Thoracic cavity decreases in volume
    2. Diaphragm flattens
    3. Ribs move down and in
    4. Air pressure increases in the thoracic cavity
    13. The diagram below is an illustration of the urinary tubule ina mammal. Study it and answer questions 13 to 15.
  13. Which of the following substances is found in the part labelled II only?
    1. Lipid
    2. Protein
    3. Salts
    4. Water
  14. The part which contains the lowest concentration of urea is labelled
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
  15. Which of the following substances is greater in concentration in the part labelled IV when compared to that of the part labelled I?
    1. Lipid
    2. Glucose
    3. Urea
    4. Uric acid
  16. Deamination of amino acids in the liver produces
    1. Blood sugar
    2. glycogen
    3. bile
    4. Urea
  17. Which of the following glands also serves as an exocrine gland?
    1. Ovary
    2. Pancreas
    3. Adrenal
    4. Thyroid
  18. Which of the following sequences is the correct route of the transmission of impulses along a reflex arc?
    1. Receptor — sensory neurone — synapse intermediate neurone — synapse > motor neurone effector
    2. Receptor —motor neurone — synapse - intermediate neurone — synapse > sensory neurone- effector
    3. Effector -> intermediate neurone > synapse — motor neurone — synapse — sensory neurone —> receptor
    4. Effector —> motor neurone — synapse —> sensory neurone + synapse — intermediate neurone > receptor
  19. When viewing an object that is close to the human eye, the
    1. eye lens become thin
    2. ciliary muscles relax
    3. suspensory ligament becomes taut
    4. eye lens become fat
  20. The part labelled I is the
    1. acrosome
    2. nucleus
    3. mitochondrion
    4. tail
  21. The function of the part labelled II is to
    1. fuse with the ovum during fertilization.
    2. generate the energy for the sperm to swim to the fallopian tube.
    3. help the sperm to swim forward.
    4. dissolve the membrane of the egg during fertilization.
  22. Which of the following types of placentation is not common amongst syncarpous pistils?
    1. Marginal
    2. Axile
    3. Parietal
    4. Free central
  23. The complex energy-rich organic matter which living organisms need for life is
    1. Water
    2. air
    3. food
    4. mineral salts
  24. Which of the following processes are associated with photosynthesis? I. Energy from sunlight is absorbed II. Carbon dioxide is evolved III. Oxygen is given off IV. Glucose is synthesized
    1. I and II only
    2. I, II and IV only
    3. I, III and IV only
    4. I, II, III and IV
  25. Which of the following functions is associated with calcium in plants? Formation of
    1. Cell wall
    2. ribosomes
    3. proteins
    4. cell membrane
    26. The diagrams below are illustrations of the dentition of an organism. Study them and answer questions 26 to 28
  26. The dentition belongs to a
    1. rabbit
    2. cat
    3. frog
    4. man
  27. The function of the teeth labelled X is for
    1. biting and grasping
    2. chewing and grinding
    3. tearing and grasping
    4. chewing and tearing
  28. he teeth which are absent in the young of the organism are labelled
    1. W
    2. X
    3. Y
    4. Z
  29. The number of individuals that the environment can support over a long period of time is its
    1. Growth rate
    2. total capacity
    3. population capacity
    4. carrying capacity
  30. A good site for secondary succession would be
    1. A sand dune
    2. a bare rock
    3. a land that has just had forest fire
    4. a stretch of barren land
  31. A population which exceeds its carrying capacity and then collapses is represented graphically by a
    1. bell-shaped curve
    2. linear curve
    3. sigmoid curve
    4. skewed curve
  32. The natural dwelling place of an organism is called its
    1. ecological niche
    2. habitat
    3. population
    4. environment
  33. Which of the following ecological factors will result in food shortage?
    1. Drought
    2. Low rate of reproduction
    3. Emigration
    4. Topography
  34. Soil permeability refers to
    1. how easily water passes through the soil
    2. the proportion of air in the soil
    3. the proportion of water the soil holds
    4. how well water rises up the soil
  35. Which of the following groups of organisms do not have members that can be called autotrophs?
    1. Protists
    2. Mosses
    3. Chlorophyta
    4. Fungi
  36. Which of the following pyramids gives the most accurate picture of the relationships between the organisms at the various trophic levels in a food chain? A pyramid of
    1. numbers
    2. energy
    3. biomass
    4. size
  37. Which of’ the following statements is not associated with pyramids of energy?
    1. Efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels can be studied
    2. Comparisons of pyramids for different ecosystems can be made
    3. More accurate comparisons of trophic levels
    4. Representation of numbers of organisms at different trophic levels
  38. Which of the following materials is not easily biodegradable?
    1. Polythene bag
    2. Cotton bag
    3. Hides and skin bag
    4. Paper bag
  39. Which of the following pairs of organisms is in a mutualistic relationship?
    1. Hydra and Sea anemone
    2. Hermit crab and Sea anemone
    3. Dodder plant and Cocoa plant
    4. Mistletoe and Kolanut
  40. The establishment of game reserves and parks is a method of
    1. conserving natural resources.
    2. cultivating game.
    3. controlling pollution.
    4. cultural awareness.
  41. Which of the following practices is not used in conserving water?
    1. Afforestation
    2. Damming
    3. Deforestation
    4. Reforestation
  42. Which of the following resources cannot be renéwed?
    1. air
    2. petroleum
    3. Food crop
    4. soil

  43. Question 43
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  44. Question 44
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  45. Question 45
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  46. Question 46
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  47. Question 47
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  48. Question 48
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  49. Question 49
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d
  50. Question 50
    1. Option a
    2. Option b
    3. Option c
    4. Option d

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  3. Question 3
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  4. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

  1. Question 6
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

  1. Question 1
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
  2. Question 2
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

  1. Question 4
    1. Sub-question a
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    2. Sub-question b
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    3. Sub-question c
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    4. Sub-question d
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    5. Sub-question e
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
    6. Sub-question f
      1. Sub-question i
      2. Sub-question ii
      3. Sub-question iii
      4. Sub-question iv
      5. Sub-question v
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