2019 Biology WAEC SSCE (School Candidates) May/June

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Biology 1 - Objective Test Questions

1. Which of the following structures will not be found in the nucleus of a cell?
   1. DNA
   2. Nucleolus
   3. Lysosome
   4. Centriole
2. An example of organ level of organization
   1. bird
   2. kidney
   3. spermatozoon
   4. xylem
3. Structural similarity between Paramecium and Amoeba is the presence of
   1. one food vacuole
   2. two contractile vacuoles
   3. two nuclei
   4. one gullet
4. The classes of plants the root systems in diagram I and II below represent respectively
   1. Dicotyledoneae and Monocotyledoneae
   2. Monocotyledoneae and Dicotyledoneae
   3. Dicotyledoneae and Dicotyledoneae
   4. Monocotyledoncace and Monocotyledoncae
5. What stage of cell division is illustrated in the diagram?
   1. Prophase
   2. Metaphase
   3. Anaphase
   4. Telophase
6. The part labelled I is the
   1. centromere
   2. spindle fibre
   3. centriole
   4. chiasmata
7. The rate of diffusion of molecules between two media will be higher if
   1. the difference in concentration of the two media is low
   2. the difference in concentration of the two media is negligible
   3. the difference in concentration of the two media is high
   4. there is no difference in the concentration of the two media
8. Anaerobic respiration in the organism illustrated in the diagram below produces carbon dioxide and
   1. ethanol
   2. water
   3. oxygen
   4. glucose
9. Underground storage stems which grow horizontally in the soil are
   1. bulbs
   2. runners
   3. rhizomes
   4. corms
10. Muscle fatigue in the body of an athlete is due to
    1. low pH
    2. high oxygen content
    3. accumulation of lactic acid
    4. accumulation of carbonic acid
11. The heart can beat continuously without being fatigued because it is composed of
    1. skeletal muscles
    2. smooth muscles
    3. cardiac muscles
    4. renal muscles
12. The products of tissue respiration are
    1. glucose, oxygen and water
    2. oxygen, water and energy
    3. glucose, carbon dioxide and energy
    4. water, carbon dioxide and energy
13. Excretory products in plants responsible for the decolouration of flowers are called
    1. alkaloids
    2. tannins
    3. anthocyanins
    4. resins
14. The process of maintaining a steady internal environment is known as
    1. osmoregulation
    2. equilibration
    3. homeostasis
    4. plasmolysis
15. Which of the following statements is not true about hormones?
    1. Their responses are voluntary
    2. They may affect more than one target organ
    3. They are chemical messengers in animals
    4. They are transported by the blood to the target organs
16. The part labelled II is the
    1. olfactory lobe
    2. cerebellum
    3. cerebrum
    4. medulla oblongata
17. The function of the part labelled II is that it controls
    1. posture and balance of body
    2. all voluntary actions
    3. temperature and appetite
    4. many involuntary actions
18. To focus on a distant object, the ciliary muscle of the eye
    1. contracts and the eye lens gets thicker
    2. relaxes and the eye lens gets thinner
    3. contracts and the eye lens gets thinner
    4. relaxes and the eye lens gets thicker
19. The main function of the amniotic fluid is for
    1. respiration in the foetus
    2. protection of the foetus from shock
    3. lubricating the birth canal
    4. nourishing the foetus
20. Which part of the flower is responsible for the protection of young flower buds?
    1. I
    2. II
    3. III
    4. IV
21. The essential parts of the flower are labelled
    1. I, II and III
    2. II,III and IV
    3. III, V and VI
    4. IV, V and VI
22. Deficiency in insulin could lead to
    1. cirrhosis
    2. hepatitis
    3. diabetes
    4. nephritis
23. Which of the following forms of energy is utilized during photosynthesis?
    1. Potential
    2. Kinetic
    3. Solar
    4. Chemical
24. Light is excluded from a water culture experiment in order to
    1. prevent overheating of the roots
    2. enable the roots to grow straight down
    3. prevent ionization of water molecules
    4. prevent the growth of algae
25. The major mineral present in the shell of Molluscs is
    1. copper
    2. sodium
    3. iron
    4. calcium
26. The digestion of proteins starts in the
    1. small intestine
    2. stomach
    3. large intestine
    4. mouth
27. Tooth decay is usually caused by
    1. undigested and absorbed food
    2. eating limited amount of sweetened food
    3. the bacteria in the mouth that metabolize sugar to acids
    4. eating a lot of proteinous foods
28. The conversion of ammonium salts into nitrates is called
    1. putrefaction
    2. denitrification
    3. fixation
    4. nitrification
29. The salinity of a brackish habitat increases immediately after rainfall
    1. increases immediately after rainfall
    2. increases at the end of the rainy season
    3. decreases with an increase in the number of organisms
    4. increases during the dry season
30. If 90 ants are found in a field with a total area of 100m; what is the population density of the ants?
    1. 0.09
    2. 0.90
    3. 9.00
    4. 90.00
31. The complex relationship between the members of a community and their physical environment Is known as
    1. commensalism
    2. symbiosis
    3. saprophytism
    4. ecology
32. The specific role of a species within its environment is known as its
    1. habitat
    2. niche
    3. trophic level
    4. biotic community
33. Which of the following soil fertility improvement methods will have the most negative effect on the ecosystem if not controlled?
    1. Application of N-P-K fertilizer
    2. Shifting cultivation
    3. Mixed farming
    4. Crop rotation
34. Organisms in an ecosystem are usually grouped according to their trophic level into
    1. carnivores an omnivores
    2. consumers and parasites
    3. producers, and saprophytes
    4. Producers and consumers
35. In the pyramid of energy illustrated below, the organism with the least amount of transferred energy is
    1. Spirogyra
    2. tadpole
    3. fish
    4. bird
36. Tall trees with unbranched trunks which grow above the upper storey of the forest are commonly referred to as
    1. emergents
    2. herbs
    3. lianes
    4. shrubs
37. Maize grains are best stored against insect attacks by
    1. keeping in a silo
    2. storing in the room
    3. leaving them on their cobs
    4. covering with leaves
38. Cholera is mostly spread by
    1. air
    2. soil
    3. water
    4. noise
39. Which of the following resources is renewable?
    1. Petroleum
    2. Coal
    3. Iron
    4. Trees
40. Which of the following roles is not performed by a government agency responsible for forest maintenance?
41. Which of the following factors is not a source of variation in living organisms?
    1. Environment
    2. Inheritance
    3. Mitosis
    4. Meiosis
42. Individuals with blood group AB can donate blood to individuals with blood group(s)
    1. A and B
    2. A and O
    3. AB only
    4. O only
43. The process occurs in the
    1. nucleus
    2. mitochondria
    3. Golgi body
    4. cytoplasm
44. The process is called
    1. replication
    2. cell maturation
    3. crossing over
    4. mutation
45. Which of the following nucleotides is not found in the DNA molecule?
    1. Adenine
    2. Cytosine
    3. Guanine
    4. Uracil
46. In a complete dominance monohybrid cross between a pure breeding yellow flowered plant Y and a pure breeding white flowered plant y, the result of the first filial generation is
    1. 50% yellow flowers
    2. 75% yellow flowers
    3. all yellow flowers
    4. all white flowers
47. A man whose blood is heterozygous B is married to a woman whose blood group is also heterozygous B. Which of the following statements is correct about the blood group of their four offspring?
    1. Three of them belong to blood group B
    2. Three of them belong to blood group O
    3. None of them belongs to blood group O
    4. Two of them belong to blood group
48. The cross between RrTt and rrtt where R is a gene for red colour and T for tallness will result in
    1. all the offspring being tall with red fruits
    2. 25 % tall with red fruits
    3. 50% tall with red fruits
    4. 75% tall with red fruits
49. The yellow and black stripes on the body of wasps is an example of
    1. mimicry
    2. courtship behaviour
    3. camouflage
    4. warning colouration
50. The biological importance of the dance by the worker honeybee is that it
    1. acts as a signal for mating
    2. serves as a warning signal
    3. signals the availability of food
    4. serves as a means of identifying members

Biology 2 - Theory Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

1. 1. 1. Complete the table below with the respiratory surface of each of the listed organisms.

1. 1. 1. State five characteristic features of respiratory surfaces in organisms.
   2. Make a drawing, 4 cm - 6 cm long of the respiratory organ in Tilapia and label fully.
2. The table below shows the percentage composition of fat and protein in six different meat types. Study it and answer questions 2(a) to 2(d).
   1. 1. Which two of the meat types may be recommended for an obese patient?
      2. State one reason for the answer in 2(a)(i).
   2. 1. Which two of the meat types would provide the most energy?
      2. State two reasons for the answer in 2(b)(i).
   3. 1. Which three of the meat types could be recommended for a child suffering from kwashiorkor?
      2. State one reason for the answer in 2(c)((i).
   4. Which of the meat types would most likely be suitable for
      1. an active teenager
      2. a 70 - year old human?
   5. Which other class of food provides energy?
   6. State three uses of fat in the human body.
   7. Describe briefly the procedure for testing for fat in a meat sample sample using a piece of white paper.
3. 1. Classify the following biological associations under the headings in the table below:
      1. Remora and shark;
      2. Lichen;
      3. Cattle and white Egret;
      4. Tapeworm in the gut of humans
      5. Flowers and Honeybees
      6. Mistletoe and Cacao plant.
   2. 1. State three adaptive features of parasites.
      2. State two effects of parasites on their hosts.
   3. 1. What are saprophytes?
      2. Give four examples of saprophytes.
4. Use the information below to answer questions 4(a)(i) and A(a)(ii). Hb^A represents normal haemoglobin, Hb^S represents sickled haemoglobin.
   1. A female heterozygote for sickle cell married a sickler. With the aid of a genetic diagram, determine the:
      1. possible genotypes of their offspring.
      2. phenotypic ratio of the offspring.
   2. Explain briefly the reason why a Rhesus negative woman married to a Rhesus positive man might lose her second pregnancy.
   3. Name two examples of features in animals that support the theory of use and disease of second pregnancy.
   4. List three structures in mammals that are vestigial.

Section C - For Candidates In Nigeria Only

6. 1. Explain briefly the importance of the following factor and organisms in the nitrogen cycle:
      1. lightning
      2. nitrosomonas
      3. Azotobacter
   2. Name the excretory organ in:
      1. insects
      2. earthworm
   3. Explain briefly the following diseases:
      1. hepatitis
      2. kidney stones
   4. 1. State three effects of lack of sense receptors in the skin of humans
      2. List three layers of the epidermis in the skin of humans.
   5. 1. What is metamorphosis?
      2. State the type of metamorphosis exhibited by each of the following insects listed in the table below

Biology 3 - Practical Questions

Section A - For All Candidates

1. Study Specimens A, B, C, E and F and answer questions 1(a) to 1(e).
   1. Name one branch of Biology which involves the use of specimens A, B,C, D,E and F.
   2. State one function each of specimens A, B, C, D, E and F.
   3. Describe briefly how each of specimens B and D could be used.
   4. Make a drawing, 10 cm to 12 cm long of specimen D and label fully.
   5. Name two organisms each associated with the use of specimens D and F.
2. Study specimens Hand J and answer questions 2(a) to 2(d)
   1. 1. Name the Kingdom and Class of organisms from which specimen H could be obtained. Kingdom: Class
      2. Name the specific location on the body of the organism from which specimen H could be obtained.
      3. Name one example of organism from which specimen H could be obtained.
   2. 1. State six observable structural differences between specimens H and J.
      2. State three observable structural similarities between specimens H and J.
   3. State one function each of specimens H and J to the organisms that possess them. H: J:
   4. Mention:
      1. three observable features that adapt specimen H to the function stated against it in 2(c)
      2. two observable features that adapt specimen J to the function stated against it in 2(c).

Section C - For Candidates in Nigeria Only

4. Study Specimens P, and Q and answer questions 4(a ) to 4(e).
   1. 1. State the sex of specimen P.
      2. Give one reason for the answer in 4(a)(i).
   2. 1. Name the habitats of each of specimens P and Q.
      2. State three adaptations each of specimens P and Q to their habitats.
   3. 1. State one observable structural differences between specimens
      2. State three observable structural similarities between specimens P and Q.
   4. 1. Observe the mouthpart of specimen Q and state its feeding mechanism.
      2. List one food which specimen Q feeds on.
   5. Remove carefully one of the legs on the right side of the metathorax of specimen P. Make a drawing, 6 cm to 8 cm long of the removed leg and label fully.